“Beeping” out the US president's speech? Why?












-1















For context, I'm from Europe (Berlin, Germany).



It really bends my mind when speeches of the president are cleaned up in TV.
I understand the beeping is defined for TV specifically, even if used elsewhere. I use the presidents speech as an example of very important speech.



There are political and juristic aspects on this, but these are not my point.
It is about a severe distortion or the meaning in language use.
What I do not understand is how a distortion of meaning in important cases can be acceptable. This distortion is caused by giving use of expletives more priority than the semantics, the actual meaning on a sentence level.



So, ok, reporting the presidents speech verbatim on TV would breach a contract between the FCC and the TV station, right?



What the fuck?



I follow US news closely, and can accept a lot to be true. But this confuses me.



Note this is actually not a rant - it literally confuses me.



Let me give an example: The removal of expletives can change the meaning of what is said severely.



In a speech referring to a set of African countries, there could be the section




[...] these "beep" countries.




That could typically interpreted as




[...] these fucking countries.




if the actual text




[...] these shit hole countries.




Here, the first variant can be interpreted as strong emphasis, while the actual text could be interpreted as an insult. Also, it can be interpreted as a very strong insult.



I think the meaning is fundamentally changed here. So much so that it is of political relevance. Especially of relevance to international relations.



This is an extreme example, but it should prove that relevant distortion of the meaning of what the president says.










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

    – Jason Bassford
    5 hours ago













  • Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

    – James Random
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    @VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

    – Jason Bassford
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago
















-1















For context, I'm from Europe (Berlin, Germany).



It really bends my mind when speeches of the president are cleaned up in TV.
I understand the beeping is defined for TV specifically, even if used elsewhere. I use the presidents speech as an example of very important speech.



There are political and juristic aspects on this, but these are not my point.
It is about a severe distortion or the meaning in language use.
What I do not understand is how a distortion of meaning in important cases can be acceptable. This distortion is caused by giving use of expletives more priority than the semantics, the actual meaning on a sentence level.



So, ok, reporting the presidents speech verbatim on TV would breach a contract between the FCC and the TV station, right?



What the fuck?



I follow US news closely, and can accept a lot to be true. But this confuses me.



Note this is actually not a rant - it literally confuses me.



Let me give an example: The removal of expletives can change the meaning of what is said severely.



In a speech referring to a set of African countries, there could be the section




[...] these "beep" countries.




That could typically interpreted as




[...] these fucking countries.




if the actual text




[...] these shit hole countries.




Here, the first variant can be interpreted as strong emphasis, while the actual text could be interpreted as an insult. Also, it can be interpreted as a very strong insult.



I think the meaning is fundamentally changed here. So much so that it is of political relevance. Especially of relevance to international relations.



This is an extreme example, but it should prove that relevant distortion of the meaning of what the president says.










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

    – Jason Bassford
    5 hours ago













  • Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

    – James Random
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    @VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

    – Jason Bassford
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago














-1












-1








-1








For context, I'm from Europe (Berlin, Germany).



It really bends my mind when speeches of the president are cleaned up in TV.
I understand the beeping is defined for TV specifically, even if used elsewhere. I use the presidents speech as an example of very important speech.



There are political and juristic aspects on this, but these are not my point.
It is about a severe distortion or the meaning in language use.
What I do not understand is how a distortion of meaning in important cases can be acceptable. This distortion is caused by giving use of expletives more priority than the semantics, the actual meaning on a sentence level.



So, ok, reporting the presidents speech verbatim on TV would breach a contract between the FCC and the TV station, right?



What the fuck?



I follow US news closely, and can accept a lot to be true. But this confuses me.



Note this is actually not a rant - it literally confuses me.



Let me give an example: The removal of expletives can change the meaning of what is said severely.



In a speech referring to a set of African countries, there could be the section




[...] these "beep" countries.




That could typically interpreted as




[...] these fucking countries.




if the actual text




[...] these shit hole countries.




Here, the first variant can be interpreted as strong emphasis, while the actual text could be interpreted as an insult. Also, it can be interpreted as a very strong insult.



I think the meaning is fundamentally changed here. So much so that it is of political relevance. Especially of relevance to international relations.



This is an extreme example, but it should prove that relevant distortion of the meaning of what the president says.










share|improve this question
















For context, I'm from Europe (Berlin, Germany).



It really bends my mind when speeches of the president are cleaned up in TV.
I understand the beeping is defined for TV specifically, even if used elsewhere. I use the presidents speech as an example of very important speech.



There are political and juristic aspects on this, but these are not my point.
It is about a severe distortion or the meaning in language use.
What I do not understand is how a distortion of meaning in important cases can be acceptable. This distortion is caused by giving use of expletives more priority than the semantics, the actual meaning on a sentence level.



So, ok, reporting the presidents speech verbatim on TV would breach a contract between the FCC and the TV station, right?



What the fuck?



I follow US news closely, and can accept a lot to be true. But this confuses me.



Note this is actually not a rant - it literally confuses me.



Let me give an example: The removal of expletives can change the meaning of what is said severely.



In a speech referring to a set of African countries, there could be the section




[...] these "beep" countries.




That could typically interpreted as




[...] these fucking countries.




if the actual text




[...] these shit hole countries.




Here, the first variant can be interpreted as strong emphasis, while the actual text could be interpreted as an insult. Also, it can be interpreted as a very strong insult.



I think the meaning is fundamentally changed here. So much so that it is of political relevance. Especially of relevance to international relations.



This is an extreme example, but it should prove that relevant distortion of the meaning of what the president says.







word-usage pejorative-language offensive-language speech figures-of-speech






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 4 hours ago







Volker Siegel

















asked 5 hours ago









Volker SiegelVolker Siegel

475415




475415








  • 1





    TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

    – Jason Bassford
    5 hours ago













  • Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

    – James Random
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    @VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

    – Jason Bassford
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago














  • 1





    TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

    – Jason Bassford
    5 hours ago













  • Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

    – James Random
    4 hours ago






  • 2





    @VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

    – Jason Bassford
    4 hours ago








  • 1





    Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago






  • 1





    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

    – Hot Licks
    3 hours ago








1




1





TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

– Jason Bassford
5 hours ago







TV stations are legally bound (or have an internal policy) to bleep out swear words at certain times of the day. The same is true of radio stations. It doesn't matter what the source is.

– Jason Bassford
5 hours ago















Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

– James Random
4 hours ago





Why would reporting the presidents speech verbatim breach a contract?

– James Random
4 hours ago




2




2





@VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago







@VolkerSiegel Are you asking a question about the English language or about the the law and politics of media? If you're asking a question about the English language, what is it? Note that if something is bleeped out, there is no way of knowing what was said. All you can do is assume that something was said . . .

– Jason Bassford
4 hours ago






1




1





Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago





Though I have no great fondness for the current US president, I have not heard/read of any instance where he has used "fucking" in a speech or recorded interview. I believe he has used terms akin to "shithole" occasionally, and been highly criticized for it. I don't recall any instances where his speech was bleeped for US broadcast (but then I try not to listen to the guy).

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago




1




1





I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago





I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it about legal restrictions, not English.

– Hot Licks
3 hours ago










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