How do I pronounce “ratio 1:1”?
How do I pronounce "ratio 1:1"?
Should I pronounce it "ratio 1 to 1"?
pronunciation numbers
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
add a comment |
How do I pronounce "ratio 1:1"?
Should I pronounce it "ratio 1 to 1"?
pronunciation numbers
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
8
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32
add a comment |
How do I pronounce "ratio 1:1"?
Should I pronounce it "ratio 1 to 1"?
pronunciation numbers
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
How do I pronounce "ratio 1:1"?
Should I pronounce it "ratio 1 to 1"?
pronunciation numbers
pronunciation numbers
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
edited Aug 1 '12 at 13:12
Meysam
1,979194565
1,979194565
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
asked Oct 6 '10 at 8:18
aneuryzmaneuryzm
3294511
3294511
8
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32
add a comment |
8
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32
8
8
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32
add a comment |
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
In speech this is obviously always pronounced "ratio one to one."
In writing, it is a matter of style. Anything of a technical nature should always be written in the 1:1 form, but when writing prose, fiction or something informal, you should certainly consider writing it as it would be spoken:
"The mix was applied in a one-to-one ratio."
The use of hyphenation and words instead of numerals makes the sentence flowing and readable, and encourages the reader's eye to see this as a single, commonly-occurring term.
Note that for the purpose of clarity ratios should generally be stated in the same clause and the same order as the two sets being compared:
"Boys and girls were present in a ratio of 3:2."
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
add a comment |
The pronunciation/spelling-out of "1:1" is "one to one" or "one-to-one." I just wanted to add that you wouldn't say "ratio one-to-one." You would either say "a ratio of one-to-one" or "a one-to-one ratio."
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
add a comment |
You would pronounce it "a ratio of 1 to 1", but it's worth noting that there are sometimes exceptions.
In films and photography, for example, ratios such as 16:9 and 4:3 are often described as "16 by 9" and "four by three", respectively.
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
add a comment |
Hmm, not sure how correct this is but I read a:b as "a is to b". And a:b::c:d as "a is to b as c is to d". Probably British English (else it's Indian :))
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes:reads "is to" and::reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.
– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
add a comment |
I am Indian and I say 1:1 "one to one" and a:b::c:d "a is to b as c is to d".
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
add a comment |
In the United States, "one-to-one ratio" is preferred. A pronunciation of "ratio" is given at the following.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_yVnFCNMchA
In addition, The American Heritage Dictionary shows both a two-syllable and three-syllable pronunciation for ratio.
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=ratio
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
add a comment |
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6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
6 Answers
6
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
In speech this is obviously always pronounced "ratio one to one."
In writing, it is a matter of style. Anything of a technical nature should always be written in the 1:1 form, but when writing prose, fiction or something informal, you should certainly consider writing it as it would be spoken:
"The mix was applied in a one-to-one ratio."
The use of hyphenation and words instead of numerals makes the sentence flowing and readable, and encourages the reader's eye to see this as a single, commonly-occurring term.
Note that for the purpose of clarity ratios should generally be stated in the same clause and the same order as the two sets being compared:
"Boys and girls were present in a ratio of 3:2."
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
add a comment |
In speech this is obviously always pronounced "ratio one to one."
In writing, it is a matter of style. Anything of a technical nature should always be written in the 1:1 form, but when writing prose, fiction or something informal, you should certainly consider writing it as it would be spoken:
"The mix was applied in a one-to-one ratio."
The use of hyphenation and words instead of numerals makes the sentence flowing and readable, and encourages the reader's eye to see this as a single, commonly-occurring term.
Note that for the purpose of clarity ratios should generally be stated in the same clause and the same order as the two sets being compared:
"Boys and girls were present in a ratio of 3:2."
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
add a comment |
In speech this is obviously always pronounced "ratio one to one."
In writing, it is a matter of style. Anything of a technical nature should always be written in the 1:1 form, but when writing prose, fiction or something informal, you should certainly consider writing it as it would be spoken:
"The mix was applied in a one-to-one ratio."
The use of hyphenation and words instead of numerals makes the sentence flowing and readable, and encourages the reader's eye to see this as a single, commonly-occurring term.
Note that for the purpose of clarity ratios should generally be stated in the same clause and the same order as the two sets being compared:
"Boys and girls were present in a ratio of 3:2."
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
In speech this is obviously always pronounced "ratio one to one."
In writing, it is a matter of style. Anything of a technical nature should always be written in the 1:1 form, but when writing prose, fiction or something informal, you should certainly consider writing it as it would be spoken:
"The mix was applied in a one-to-one ratio."
The use of hyphenation and words instead of numerals makes the sentence flowing and readable, and encourages the reader's eye to see this as a single, commonly-occurring term.
Note that for the purpose of clarity ratios should generally be stated in the same clause and the same order as the two sets being compared:
"Boys and girls were present in a ratio of 3:2."
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
answered Oct 6 '10 at 9:25
PyroTygerPyroTyger
2,88211423
2,88211423
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
add a comment |
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
the hyphenation of "one-to-one" is used because it is a phrasal adjective, and not simply because it is easier on the eyes.
– horatio
Jun 7 '11 at 14:53
4
4
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
It's never pronounced "ratio one to one"
– Matt E. Эллен♦
Aug 1 '12 at 13:13
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
Numbers that add up to 100 are a special case, though, especially 50:50; they are often pronounced by just saying the numbers, ignoring the colon. This leads many people to mistakenly write "50/50" rather that "50:50".
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@Acccumulation There is no mistake in writing “50/50”. Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well. But the phrase fifty-fifty isn’t really a fraction at all, conceptually speaking – the actual ratio of fifty to fifty would be better expressed as 1:1, with which it is entirely equivalent. The end result of a fractional and a rational correspondence may be mathematically equivalent, but they serve different purposes in communication.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
3 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet "Ratios can be expressed as fractions as well." Ratios and fractions are different mathematical objects. Furthermore, in the context of probability, fractions will be expected to represent probability, while ratios will be expected to represent odds.
– Acccumulation
2 hours ago
add a comment |
The pronunciation/spelling-out of "1:1" is "one to one" or "one-to-one." I just wanted to add that you wouldn't say "ratio one-to-one." You would either say "a ratio of one-to-one" or "a one-to-one ratio."
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
add a comment |
The pronunciation/spelling-out of "1:1" is "one to one" or "one-to-one." I just wanted to add that you wouldn't say "ratio one-to-one." You would either say "a ratio of one-to-one" or "a one-to-one ratio."
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
add a comment |
The pronunciation/spelling-out of "1:1" is "one to one" or "one-to-one." I just wanted to add that you wouldn't say "ratio one-to-one." You would either say "a ratio of one-to-one" or "a one-to-one ratio."
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
The pronunciation/spelling-out of "1:1" is "one to one" or "one-to-one." I just wanted to add that you wouldn't say "ratio one-to-one." You would either say "a ratio of one-to-one" or "a one-to-one ratio."
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
answered Oct 7 '10 at 17:52
ClaudiuClaudiu
7,516155381
7,516155381
add a comment |
add a comment |
You would pronounce it "a ratio of 1 to 1", but it's worth noting that there are sometimes exceptions.
In films and photography, for example, ratios such as 16:9 and 4:3 are often described as "16 by 9" and "four by three", respectively.
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
add a comment |
You would pronounce it "a ratio of 1 to 1", but it's worth noting that there are sometimes exceptions.
In films and photography, for example, ratios such as 16:9 and 4:3 are often described as "16 by 9" and "four by three", respectively.
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
add a comment |
You would pronounce it "a ratio of 1 to 1", but it's worth noting that there are sometimes exceptions.
In films and photography, for example, ratios such as 16:9 and 4:3 are often described as "16 by 9" and "four by three", respectively.
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
You would pronounce it "a ratio of 1 to 1", but it's worth noting that there are sometimes exceptions.
In films and photography, for example, ratios such as 16:9 and 4:3 are often described as "16 by 9" and "four by three", respectively.
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
edited Jun 7 '11 at 13:26
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
answered Jun 1 '11 at 17:30
Django ReinhardtDjango Reinhardt
1,53582439
1,53582439
add a comment |
add a comment |
Hmm, not sure how correct this is but I read a:b as "a is to b". And a:b::c:d as "a is to b as c is to d". Probably British English (else it's Indian :))
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes:reads "is to" and::reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.
– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Hmm, not sure how correct this is but I read a:b as "a is to b". And a:b::c:d as "a is to b as c is to d". Probably British English (else it's Indian :))
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes:reads "is to" and::reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.
– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Hmm, not sure how correct this is but I read a:b as "a is to b". And a:b::c:d as "a is to b as c is to d". Probably British English (else it's Indian :))
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
Hmm, not sure how correct this is but I read a:b as "a is to b". And a:b::c:d as "a is to b as c is to d". Probably British English (else it's Indian :))
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
answered Oct 6 '10 at 13:40
AutodidactAutodidact
25014
25014
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes:reads "is to" and::reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.
– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
add a comment |
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes:reads "is to" and::reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.
– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
1
1
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
"Is to" is commonly used in India. Not sure if it has British roots.
– MediumOne
Apr 5 '11 at 11:14
In that formulation, yes
: reads "is to" and :: reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
In that formulation, yes
: reads "is to" and :: reads "as". This is common on standardized tests in the USA.– T.E.D.
Jun 7 '11 at 13:30
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
The OP specifically says that they're talking about ratios. That pronunciation is for analogies.
– Acccumulation
4 hours ago
add a comment |
I am Indian and I say 1:1 "one to one" and a:b::c:d "a is to b as c is to d".
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
add a comment |
I am Indian and I say 1:1 "one to one" and a:b::c:d "a is to b as c is to d".
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
add a comment |
I am Indian and I say 1:1 "one to one" and a:b::c:d "a is to b as c is to d".
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
I am Indian and I say 1:1 "one to one" and a:b::c:d "a is to b as c is to d".
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
edited Mar 2 '12 at 18:30
Daniel
47.3k60231356
47.3k60231356
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
answered Mar 2 '12 at 15:33
NarendraNarendra
111
111
add a comment |
add a comment |
In the United States, "one-to-one ratio" is preferred. A pronunciation of "ratio" is given at the following.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_yVnFCNMchA
In addition, The American Heritage Dictionary shows both a two-syllable and three-syllable pronunciation for ratio.
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=ratio
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
add a comment |
In the United States, "one-to-one ratio" is preferred. A pronunciation of "ratio" is given at the following.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_yVnFCNMchA
In addition, The American Heritage Dictionary shows both a two-syllable and three-syllable pronunciation for ratio.
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=ratio
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
add a comment |
In the United States, "one-to-one ratio" is preferred. A pronunciation of "ratio" is given at the following.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_yVnFCNMchA
In addition, The American Heritage Dictionary shows both a two-syllable and three-syllable pronunciation for ratio.
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=ratio
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
In the United States, "one-to-one ratio" is preferred. A pronunciation of "ratio" is given at the following.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_yVnFCNMchA
In addition, The American Heritage Dictionary shows both a two-syllable and three-syllable pronunciation for ratio.
https://www.ahdictionary.com/word/search.html?q=ratio
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
edited 2 hours ago
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
answered 4 hours ago
KevinKevin
171
171
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Kevin is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
add a comment |
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
2
2
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
Ray-show. Really? Is the dictionary wrong today? Was the dictionary wrong in 1828? When was this two-syllable pronunciation, that was later corrupted, widespread? I think even the ancient Romans used three syllables.
– Peter Shor
4 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
"best" in what sense? And what citations do you have?
– Acccumulation
3 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I’m pretty sure I’d say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/. I’ve never really thought about it, but the di- and trisyllabic variants both sound perfectly normal and unremarkable to me. I’m quite surprised ODO doesn’t even give the disyllabic pronunciation as a variant. The OED only gives it as an AmE variant, which I’m quite sure isn’t right. I’ve definitely heard Brits say /ˈrεɪʃəʊ/ as well.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@Janus: there are lots of people who say /ˈreɪʃoʊ/, and I wouldn't call it wrong. Claiming that it is the only correct, and also the historically correct pronunciation was a little over the top, though. (The answer was edited since.)
– Peter Shor
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
@PeterShor I misread your initial comment, then – I read it as incredulity at the existence of the disyllabic pronunciation and was puzzled.
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
2 hours ago
add a comment |
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8
By spell do you mean pronounce?
– ShreevatsaR
Oct 6 '10 at 8:30
If you say it in that order, 'ratio' followed by '1:1' you'd say "ratio of 1:1".
– Mitch
Apr 20 '11 at 16:32