Does $(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}$ with $x_2=x_3=1$ define a sequence that is integral at...












30












$begingroup$


My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):




$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$




The task I got from him:




  • The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.

  • Make a conjecture and prove it.


Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:



b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;


And I got the following results:



$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$



Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).



So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:



table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]


...and the output was:



{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}


Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):




$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.




Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:



$$y_n=n x_n$$



...which simplifies (1) a bit:



$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$



...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Witthoft
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
    $endgroup$
    – Cort Ammon
    yesterday








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    6 hours ago


















30












$begingroup$


My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):




$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$




The task I got from him:




  • The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.

  • Make a conjecture and prove it.


Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:



b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;


And I got the following results:



$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$



Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).



So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:



table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]


...and the output was:



{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}


Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):




$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.




Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:



$$y_n=n x_n$$



...which simplifies (1) a bit:



$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$



...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Witthoft
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
    $endgroup$
    – Cort Ammon
    yesterday








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    6 hours ago
















30












30








30


5



$begingroup$


My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):




$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$




The task I got from him:




  • The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.

  • Make a conjecture and prove it.


Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:



b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;


And I got the following results:



$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$



Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).



So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:



table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]


...and the output was:



{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}


Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):




$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.




Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:



$$y_n=n x_n$$



...which simplifies (1) a bit:



$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$



...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):




$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$




The task I got from him:




  • The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.

  • Make a conjecture and prove it.


Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:



b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;


And I got the following results:



$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$



Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).



So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:



table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]


...and the output was:



{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}


Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):




$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.




Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:



$$y_n=n x_n$$



...which simplifies (1) a bit:



$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$



...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).







sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited 9 hours ago









YuiTo Cheng

2,0532637




2,0532637










asked yesterday









OldboyOldboy

8,83111138




8,83111138








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Witthoft
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
    $endgroup$
    – Cort Ammon
    yesterday








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    6 hours ago
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
    $endgroup$
    – Carl Witthoft
    yesterday






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
    $endgroup$
    – Cort Ammon
    yesterday








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
    $endgroup$
    – Sil
    6 hours ago










2




2




$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday




$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday




2




2




$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday






$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled a through z) is greater than zero, then k, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday






2




2




$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago






$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















34












$begingroup$

The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$
If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$
This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$
hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$






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    31












    $begingroup$

    The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
      $endgroup$
      – Oldboy
      yesterday






    • 2




      $begingroup$
      I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
      $endgroup$
      – FredH
      yesterday






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
      $endgroup$
      – Oldboy
      yesterday



















    9












    $begingroup$

    Too long for a comment:




    Numbers don't make any sense




    Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:




    $$
    a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
    a_{5}=5,quad
    a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
    a_{7}=103,quad
    a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
    a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
    \~\~\
    a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
    a_{11}=329891,quad
    a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
    a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
    $$




    Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:




    $$
    a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
    a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
    a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
    a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
    a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
    a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
    \~\~\
    a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
    a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
    a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
    a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
    $$




    At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:




    $$
    r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
    r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
    r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
    r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
    $$




    In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
      $endgroup$
      – YiFan
      21 hours ago






    • 3




      $begingroup$
      @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
      $endgroup$
      – Lucian
      21 hours ago













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    3 Answers
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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    active

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    34












    $begingroup$

    The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
    $$
    (n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
    frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
    $$
    If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
    $$
    z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
    $$
    This gives
    $$
    y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
    $$
    hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      34












      $begingroup$

      The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
      $$
      (n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
      frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
      $$
      If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
      $$
      z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
      $$
      This gives
      $$
      y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
      $$
      hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        34












        34








        34





        $begingroup$

        The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
        $$
        (n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
        frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
        $$
        If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
        $$
        z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
        $$
        This gives
        $$
        y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
        $$
        hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
        $$
        (n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
        frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
        $$
        If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
        $$
        z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
        $$
        This gives
        $$
        y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
        $$
        hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered yesterday









        SongSong

        18k21449




        18k21449























            31












            $begingroup$

            The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
              $endgroup$
              – FredH
              yesterday






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday
















            31












            $begingroup$

            The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
              $endgroup$
              – FredH
              yesterday






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday














            31












            31








            31





            $begingroup$

            The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered yesterday









            FredHFredH

            2,1741018




            2,1741018








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
              $endgroup$
              – FredH
              yesterday






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday














            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday






            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
              $endgroup$
              – FredH
              yesterday






            • 1




              $begingroup$
              I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
              $endgroup$
              – Oldboy
              yesterday








            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – Oldboy
            yesterday




            $begingroup$
            Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
            $endgroup$
            – Oldboy
            yesterday




            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – FredH
            yesterday




            $begingroup$
            I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – FredH
            yesterday




            1




            1




            $begingroup$
            I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
            $endgroup$
            – Oldboy
            yesterday




            $begingroup$
            I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
            $endgroup$
            – Oldboy
            yesterday











            9












            $begingroup$

            Too long for a comment:




            Numbers don't make any sense




            Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{5}=5,quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{7}=103,quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{11}=329891,quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
            $$




            Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
            $$




            At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:




            $$
            r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
            r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
            r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
            r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
            $$




            In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              21 hours ago






            • 3




              $begingroup$
              @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
              $endgroup$
              – Lucian
              21 hours ago


















            9












            $begingroup$

            Too long for a comment:




            Numbers don't make any sense




            Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{5}=5,quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{7}=103,quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{11}=329891,quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
            $$




            Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
            $$




            At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:




            $$
            r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
            r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
            r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
            r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
            $$




            In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              21 hours ago






            • 3




              $begingroup$
              @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
              $endgroup$
              – Lucian
              21 hours ago
















            9












            9








            9





            $begingroup$

            Too long for a comment:




            Numbers don't make any sense




            Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{5}=5,quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{7}=103,quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{11}=329891,quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
            $$




            Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
            $$




            At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:




            $$
            r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
            r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
            r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
            r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
            $$




            In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Too long for a comment:




            Numbers don't make any sense




            Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{5}=5,quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{7}=103,quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{11}=329891,quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
            $$




            Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:




            $$
            a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
            a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
            a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
            a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
            a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
            a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
            \~\~\
            a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
            a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
            a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
            $$




            At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:




            $$
            r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
            r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
            r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
            r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
            $$




            In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 21 hours ago









            LucianLucian

            41.4k159130




            41.4k159130












            • $begingroup$
              I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              21 hours ago






            • 3




              $begingroup$
              @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
              $endgroup$
              – Lucian
              21 hours ago




















            • $begingroup$
              I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
              $endgroup$
              – YiFan
              21 hours ago






            • 3




              $begingroup$
              @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
              $endgroup$
              – Lucian
              21 hours ago


















            $begingroup$
            I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
            $endgroup$
            – YiFan
            21 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
            $endgroup$
            – YiFan
            21 hours ago




            3




            3




            $begingroup$
            @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
            $endgroup$
            – Lucian
            21 hours ago






            $begingroup$
            @YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
            $endgroup$
            – Lucian
            21 hours ago




















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