What does “I made him a cake” mean?












20














Is it correct sentence below?
And what does it mean? Also, how is it working grammatically?




I made him a cake.





  1. I made a cake for him.

  2. I baked a cake using him. (Sounds so horrible!)


To me, 1 is more natural but I am not sure.
I've never seen that kind of sentence before.
Is "I made him a cake" a common sentence used by native speakers?










share|improve this question




















  • 7




    Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
    – dwizum
    2 days ago






  • 1




    For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
    – jamesqf
    2 days ago






  • 3




    If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    @dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    #2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
    – Mazura
    2 days ago
















20














Is it correct sentence below?
And what does it mean? Also, how is it working grammatically?




I made him a cake.





  1. I made a cake for him.

  2. I baked a cake using him. (Sounds so horrible!)


To me, 1 is more natural but I am not sure.
I've never seen that kind of sentence before.
Is "I made him a cake" a common sentence used by native speakers?










share|improve this question




















  • 7




    Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
    – dwizum
    2 days ago






  • 1




    For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
    – jamesqf
    2 days ago






  • 3




    If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    @dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    #2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
    – Mazura
    2 days ago














20












20








20


1





Is it correct sentence below?
And what does it mean? Also, how is it working grammatically?




I made him a cake.





  1. I made a cake for him.

  2. I baked a cake using him. (Sounds so horrible!)


To me, 1 is more natural but I am not sure.
I've never seen that kind of sentence before.
Is "I made him a cake" a common sentence used by native speakers?










share|improve this question















Is it correct sentence below?
And what does it mean? Also, how is it working grammatically?




I made him a cake.





  1. I made a cake for him.

  2. I baked a cake using him. (Sounds so horrible!)


To me, 1 is more natural but I am not sure.
I've never seen that kind of sentence before.
Is "I made him a cake" a common sentence used by native speakers?







meaning indirect-objects






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Jan 7 at 14:55









M.A.R. ಠ_ಠ

6,31953060




6,31953060










asked Jan 7 at 13:30









Ldeirjckel5489Ldeirjckel5489

12915




12915








  • 7




    Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
    – dwizum
    2 days ago






  • 1




    For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
    – jamesqf
    2 days ago






  • 3




    If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    @dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    #2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
    – Mazura
    2 days ago














  • 7




    Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
    – dwizum
    2 days ago






  • 1




    For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
    – jamesqf
    2 days ago






  • 3




    If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    @dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
    – geneSummons
    2 days ago






  • 5




    #2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
    – Mazura
    2 days ago








7




7




Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
– dwizum
2 days ago




Any other fans of The IT Crowd instantly think of a certain German who wishes to cook "with" Moss?
– dwizum
2 days ago




1




1




For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
– jamesqf
2 days ago




For #2, it would be more natural to say "I made him INTO a cake." Though that would not work very well: a roast or a stew, sure, but cake? Further discussion should go to the Cooking site :-)
– jamesqf
2 days ago




3




3




If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
– geneSummons
2 days ago




If "I made him a cake" was spoken by Endora (from the Bewitched TV show), the phrase could literally mean she magically turned him into a cake. But in the real, non-magic, world, people are generally understood to NOT be baked goods or ingredients.
– geneSummons
2 days ago




5




5




@dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
– geneSummons
2 days ago




@dwizum or of The Twilight Zone episode, "To Serve Man" (spoiler alert: "It's a Cookbook!!!")
– geneSummons
2 days ago




5




5




#2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
– Mazura
2 days ago




#2 is a dad joke and it's more common than any of us want it to be.
– Mazura
2 days ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















42














Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood.



There is a subtle difference between I made him a cake and I made a cake for him, though. I made him a cake would indicate that you are making a cake that you will give to him. I made a cake for him could indicate the same, or it could mean that you made a cake on his behalf.



Your second interpretation - I baked a cake using him - would probably be phrased as I made him into a cake






share|improve this answer

















  • 27




    Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
    – EldritchWarlord
    2 days ago






  • 15




    It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
    – JonM
    2 days ago








  • 5




    Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
    – Barmar
    2 days ago






  • 11




    Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
    – Muzer
    2 days ago






  • 12




    And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
    – MikeTheLiar
    2 days ago



















24














In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting and the indirect object (him) provides a second target, often describing "for what" or "to what" the verb is doing to the direct object.



Examples:




  • I - made - him - a cake

  • I - gave - him - a present

  • I - told - him - a story


You may be confused because there are many meanings for "make". Going by the definitions at https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/make:




  • make (3) - to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material. Example:
    I made a cake

  • make (9) - to cause to be or become. Example: I made her happy.


So both the interpretations "I made(3) him a cake" (I made a cake, for him) and "I made(9) him a cake" (I transformed him into a cake) are grammatically correct, but you would use your understanding of the context to know that in most cases the speaker meant made(3) and not made(9).



To add another example, consider the similar phrase "I'm going to make you a star." Usually you would take that to mean "I will cause you to become a success" but it is not unlikely that "I will cut a star out of paper and hand it to you"






share|improve this answer























  • Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
    – qqqqq
    2 days ago








  • 3




    @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
    – gidds
    2 days ago






  • 1




    I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
    – David K
    yesterday












  • @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
    – qqqqq
    yesterday










  • @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
    – Will Crawford
    yesterday



















7














Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":




I gave the book to him = I gave him the book.




In addition any verb which does not normally take an indirect object can have a benefactive complement introduced by "for", and in many cases this benefactive can come before the direct object in exactly the same way as for ditransitive verbs.



Examples:




I made/baked him a cake = I made/baked a cake for him.



He bought me a book = He bought a book for me.



Keep me a seat! = Keep a seat for me.



I cut her a slice [of cake] = I cut a slice [of cake] for her.




I think there is a semantic restriction that the beneficiary is going to have, or use, or enjoy the result of the action, not just the action happening. So




Wash me a cup = Wash a cup for me (that I can use).




but I don't think I would say




?Wash me the laundry




even though I might say "Wash the laundry for me".






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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    42














    Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood.



    There is a subtle difference between I made him a cake and I made a cake for him, though. I made him a cake would indicate that you are making a cake that you will give to him. I made a cake for him could indicate the same, or it could mean that you made a cake on his behalf.



    Your second interpretation - I baked a cake using him - would probably be phrased as I made him into a cake






    share|improve this answer

















    • 27




      Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
      – EldritchWarlord
      2 days ago






    • 15




      It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
      – JonM
      2 days ago








    • 5




      Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
      – Barmar
      2 days ago






    • 11




      Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
      – Muzer
      2 days ago






    • 12




      And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
      – MikeTheLiar
      2 days ago
















    42














    Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood.



    There is a subtle difference between I made him a cake and I made a cake for him, though. I made him a cake would indicate that you are making a cake that you will give to him. I made a cake for him could indicate the same, or it could mean that you made a cake on his behalf.



    Your second interpretation - I baked a cake using him - would probably be phrased as I made him into a cake






    share|improve this answer

















    • 27




      Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
      – EldritchWarlord
      2 days ago






    • 15




      It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
      – JonM
      2 days ago








    • 5




      Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
      – Barmar
      2 days ago






    • 11




      Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
      – Muzer
      2 days ago






    • 12




      And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
      – MikeTheLiar
      2 days ago














    42












    42








    42






    Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood.



    There is a subtle difference between I made him a cake and I made a cake for him, though. I made him a cake would indicate that you are making a cake that you will give to him. I made a cake for him could indicate the same, or it could mean that you made a cake on his behalf.



    Your second interpretation - I baked a cake using him - would probably be phrased as I made him into a cake






    share|improve this answer












    Your interpretation 1 is correct - I made him a cake means the same as I made a cake for him. This is indeed a common construction in English, and would generally be understood.



    There is a subtle difference between I made him a cake and I made a cake for him, though. I made him a cake would indicate that you are making a cake that you will give to him. I made a cake for him could indicate the same, or it could mean that you made a cake on his behalf.



    Your second interpretation - I baked a cake using him - would probably be phrased as I made him into a cake







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered Jan 7 at 13:56









    WerrfWerrf

    4,5661017




    4,5661017








    • 27




      Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
      – EldritchWarlord
      2 days ago






    • 15




      It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
      – JonM
      2 days ago








    • 5




      Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
      – Barmar
      2 days ago






    • 11




      Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
      – Muzer
      2 days ago






    • 12




      And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
      – MikeTheLiar
      2 days ago














    • 27




      Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
      – EldritchWarlord
      2 days ago






    • 15




      It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
      – JonM
      2 days ago








    • 5




      Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
      – Barmar
      2 days ago






    • 11




      Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
      – Muzer
      2 days ago






    • 12




      And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
      – MikeTheLiar
      2 days ago








    27




    27




    Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
    – EldritchWarlord
    2 days ago




    Though it bears mentioning that "I made him a cake" could have the same meaning as "I made him into a cake", if someone wanted to hide their cannibalism while still being truthful for example.
    – EldritchWarlord
    2 days ago




    15




    15




    It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
    – JonM
    2 days ago






    It reminds me of that old joke: Did you hear about the magic tractor? It went down the lane and turned into a field.
    – JonM
    2 days ago






    5




    5




    Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
    – Barmar
    2 days ago




    Don't ask a witch to make you a cake.
    – Barmar
    2 days ago




    11




    11




    Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
    – Muzer
    2 days ago




    Reminds me of the early days of Siri when it was truly useless: "Hey Siri, call me an ambulance!" "OK, from now on I will call you 'An Ambulance'".
    – Muzer
    2 days ago




    12




    12




    And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
    – MikeTheLiar
    2 days ago




    And of course, "The Dalai Lama walks up to a hot dog cart and says 'Make me one with everything'"
    – MikeTheLiar
    2 days ago













    24














    In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting and the indirect object (him) provides a second target, often describing "for what" or "to what" the verb is doing to the direct object.



    Examples:




    • I - made - him - a cake

    • I - gave - him - a present

    • I - told - him - a story


    You may be confused because there are many meanings for "make". Going by the definitions at https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/make:




    • make (3) - to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material. Example:
      I made a cake

    • make (9) - to cause to be or become. Example: I made her happy.


    So both the interpretations "I made(3) him a cake" (I made a cake, for him) and "I made(9) him a cake" (I transformed him into a cake) are grammatically correct, but you would use your understanding of the context to know that in most cases the speaker meant made(3) and not made(9).



    To add another example, consider the similar phrase "I'm going to make you a star." Usually you would take that to mean "I will cause you to become a success" but it is not unlikely that "I will cut a star out of paper and hand it to you"






    share|improve this answer























    • Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
      – qqqqq
      2 days ago








    • 3




      @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
      – gidds
      2 days ago






    • 1




      I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
      – David K
      yesterday












    • @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
      – qqqqq
      yesterday










    • @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
      – Will Crawford
      yesterday
















    24














    In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting and the indirect object (him) provides a second target, often describing "for what" or "to what" the verb is doing to the direct object.



    Examples:




    • I - made - him - a cake

    • I - gave - him - a present

    • I - told - him - a story


    You may be confused because there are many meanings for "make". Going by the definitions at https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/make:




    • make (3) - to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material. Example:
      I made a cake

    • make (9) - to cause to be or become. Example: I made her happy.


    So both the interpretations "I made(3) him a cake" (I made a cake, for him) and "I made(9) him a cake" (I transformed him into a cake) are grammatically correct, but you would use your understanding of the context to know that in most cases the speaker meant made(3) and not made(9).



    To add another example, consider the similar phrase "I'm going to make you a star." Usually you would take that to mean "I will cause you to become a success" but it is not unlikely that "I will cut a star out of paper and hand it to you"






    share|improve this answer























    • Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
      – qqqqq
      2 days ago








    • 3




      @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
      – gidds
      2 days ago






    • 1




      I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
      – David K
      yesterday












    • @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
      – qqqqq
      yesterday










    • @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
      – Will Crawford
      yesterday














    24












    24








    24






    In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting and the indirect object (him) provides a second target, often describing "for what" or "to what" the verb is doing to the direct object.



    Examples:




    • I - made - him - a cake

    • I - gave - him - a present

    • I - told - him - a story


    You may be confused because there are many meanings for "make". Going by the definitions at https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/make:




    • make (3) - to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material. Example:
      I made a cake

    • make (9) - to cause to be or become. Example: I made her happy.


    So both the interpretations "I made(3) him a cake" (I made a cake, for him) and "I made(9) him a cake" (I transformed him into a cake) are grammatically correct, but you would use your understanding of the context to know that in most cases the speaker meant made(3) and not made(9).



    To add another example, consider the similar phrase "I'm going to make you a star." Usually you would take that to mean "I will cause you to become a success" but it is not unlikely that "I will cut a star out of paper and hand it to you"






    share|improve this answer














    In English, you will commonly encounter sentences of the form: Subject - Verb - Indirect Object - Direct Object, where the direct object (cake/warning/present) describes "on what" the verb is acting and the indirect object (him) provides a second target, often describing "for what" or "to what" the verb is doing to the direct object.



    Examples:




    • I - made - him - a cake

    • I - gave - him - a present

    • I - told - him - a story


    You may be confused because there are many meanings for "make". Going by the definitions at https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/make:




    • make (3) - to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material. Example:
      I made a cake

    • make (9) - to cause to be or become. Example: I made her happy.


    So both the interpretations "I made(3) him a cake" (I made a cake, for him) and "I made(9) him a cake" (I transformed him into a cake) are grammatically correct, but you would use your understanding of the context to know that in most cases the speaker meant made(3) and not made(9).



    To add another example, consider the similar phrase "I'm going to make you a star." Usually you would take that to mean "I will cause you to become a success" but it is not unlikely that "I will cut a star out of paper and hand it to you"







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited 2 days ago

























    answered 2 days ago









    JimmyJimmy

    58618




    58618












    • Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
      – qqqqq
      2 days ago








    • 3




      @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
      – gidds
      2 days ago






    • 1




      I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
      – David K
      yesterday












    • @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
      – qqqqq
      yesterday










    • @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
      – Will Crawford
      yesterday


















    • Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
      – qqqqq
      2 days ago








    • 3




      @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
      – gidds
      2 days ago






    • 1




      I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
      – David K
      yesterday












    • @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
      – qqqqq
      yesterday










    • @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
      – Will Crawford
      yesterday
















    Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
    – qqqqq
    2 days ago






    Is "I made a cake for him" better English? If yes, both in formal and spoken communication? Is skipping words like "for" a trend in English to shorten sentences(perhaps caused by rapid urbanization. Where one has to just communicate essentials using minimal words because of lack of time). Example, I grew up learning "He broke his leg" would suggest he was at least partially responsible of his broken leg as opposed to "He leg got broken".
    – qqqqq
    2 days ago






    3




    3




    @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
    – gidds
    2 days ago




    @qqqqq: My impression is that “I made him a cake” and “I made a cake for him” would both be common, idiomatic English, in both formal and casual contexts. (I suspect I'd be a little more likely to say the former, simply because it's slightly shorter and simpler.) The construction is at least two centuries old, possibly much more; it's certainly not a recent trend.
    – gidds
    2 days ago




    1




    1




    I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
    – David K
    yesterday






    I'd say "made him a cake" is a natural idiom in English, though one might say "baked" instead of "made". Compare this line from a popular children's rhyme: "Bake me a cake as fast as you can." I agree the meaning would be make(3) in this context, though it also could be a play on words, in which case both the meanings make(3) and make(9) would apply.
    – David K
    yesterday














    @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
    – qqqqq
    yesterday




    @qqqqq There is a typo. Someone please replace ""He leg got broken" by ""His leg got broken". I am not allowed to edit it.
    – qqqqq
    yesterday












    @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
    – Will Crawford
    yesterday




    @DavidK unfortunately it's always a play on words ;o)
    – Will Crawford
    yesterday











    7














    Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":




    I gave the book to him = I gave him the book.




    In addition any verb which does not normally take an indirect object can have a benefactive complement introduced by "for", and in many cases this benefactive can come before the direct object in exactly the same way as for ditransitive verbs.



    Examples:




    I made/baked him a cake = I made/baked a cake for him.



    He bought me a book = He bought a book for me.



    Keep me a seat! = Keep a seat for me.



    I cut her a slice [of cake] = I cut a slice [of cake] for her.




    I think there is a semantic restriction that the beneficiary is going to have, or use, or enjoy the result of the action, not just the action happening. So




    Wash me a cup = Wash a cup for me (that I can use).




    but I don't think I would say




    ?Wash me the laundry




    even though I might say "Wash the laundry for me".






    share|improve this answer


























      7














      Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":




      I gave the book to him = I gave him the book.




      In addition any verb which does not normally take an indirect object can have a benefactive complement introduced by "for", and in many cases this benefactive can come before the direct object in exactly the same way as for ditransitive verbs.



      Examples:




      I made/baked him a cake = I made/baked a cake for him.



      He bought me a book = He bought a book for me.



      Keep me a seat! = Keep a seat for me.



      I cut her a slice [of cake] = I cut a slice [of cake] for her.




      I think there is a semantic restriction that the beneficiary is going to have, or use, or enjoy the result of the action, not just the action happening. So




      Wash me a cup = Wash a cup for me (that I can use).




      but I don't think I would say




      ?Wash me the laundry




      even though I might say "Wash the laundry for me".






      share|improve this answer
























        7












        7








        7






        Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":




        I gave the book to him = I gave him the book.




        In addition any verb which does not normally take an indirect object can have a benefactive complement introduced by "for", and in many cases this benefactive can come before the direct object in exactly the same way as for ditransitive verbs.



        Examples:




        I made/baked him a cake = I made/baked a cake for him.



        He bought me a book = He bought a book for me.



        Keep me a seat! = Keep a seat for me.



        I cut her a slice [of cake] = I cut a slice [of cake] for her.




        I think there is a semantic restriction that the beneficiary is going to have, or use, or enjoy the result of the action, not just the action happening. So




        Wash me a cup = Wash a cup for me (that I can use).




        but I don't think I would say




        ?Wash me the laundry




        even though I might say "Wash the laundry for me".






        share|improve this answer












        Some verbs, (known as ditransitive) have both a direct and an indirect object, which can be expressed either way round; but if the direct object comes first, the indirect requires its preposition "to":




        I gave the book to him = I gave him the book.




        In addition any verb which does not normally take an indirect object can have a benefactive complement introduced by "for", and in many cases this benefactive can come before the direct object in exactly the same way as for ditransitive verbs.



        Examples:




        I made/baked him a cake = I made/baked a cake for him.



        He bought me a book = He bought a book for me.



        Keep me a seat! = Keep a seat for me.



        I cut her a slice [of cake] = I cut a slice [of cake] for her.




        I think there is a semantic restriction that the beneficiary is going to have, or use, or enjoy the result of the action, not just the action happening. So




        Wash me a cup = Wash a cup for me (that I can use).




        but I don't think I would say




        ?Wash me the laundry




        even though I might say "Wash the laundry for me".







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 2 days ago









        Colin FineColin Fine

        28.6k24155




        28.6k24155






























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