Nested homeomorphic sets












5












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    2 days ago
















5












$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    2 days ago














5












5








5





$begingroup$


Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose we have a countable collection of sets ${U_n}$ such that $U_nsubset U_{n+1}$ for each $n$ and $U_n$ is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or more generally, $X$) for each $n$, then is $bigcup_{n=1}^infty U_n$ homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$ (or $X$)? I am not sure pushing $n$ to $infty$ works and I couldn't construct an explicit homeomorphism. Thanks!






general-topology




general-topology






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









bof

51.3k457120




51.3k457120










asked 2 days ago









J.DoeJ.Doe

7314




7314








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    2 days ago














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
    $endgroup$
    – Gerry Myerson
    2 days ago








2




2




$begingroup$
Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
2 days ago




$begingroup$
Try $U_n=[0,n]$.
$endgroup$
– Gerry Myerson
2 days ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















6












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago



















0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









6












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago
















6












$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago














6












6








6





$begingroup$

Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi i theta} -1 mid theta in [0,1-1/i)} cup {e^{2pi i theta} +1 mid theta in [1/2, 3/2-1/i)}.$$



Then every $U_i$ is a subset of the union of two circles that are glued together at a single point at the origin and is homeomorphic to $mathbb{R}$. The union $bigcup_i geq 1$ is equal to the union of the two circles.




Here's a simpler example for $Xcong [0,1)$ using the same idea. Let $$U_i = {e^{2pi itheta} mid theta in [0,1-1/i)}.$$



Then $U_i cong [0,1)$ for all $i geq 1$, but $bigcup_{i geq 1} U_i = S^1$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 2 days ago

























answered 2 days ago









Dan RustDan Rust

22.8k114884




22.8k114884








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    2 days ago










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    2 days ago








1




1




$begingroup$
I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
$endgroup$
– zhw.
2 days ago




$begingroup$
I think this would be a better example if you simply gave your solution to the $mathbb R$ case (without the "wedge" language, which people may not understand).
$endgroup$
– zhw.
2 days ago












$begingroup$
@zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago




$begingroup$
@zhw. thanks for the suggestion. Hopefully the edit is a bit easier to read (unfortunately, it's not too easy to write the $U_i$s in a very simple way without talking about gluing/wedges).
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
$endgroup$
– bof
2 days ago




$begingroup$
Oh, right. Or $U_n={t:-2lt tle1}cup{e^{it}:0le tltpi-frac1n}$. By the way, you are using the letter $i$ for two different things.
$endgroup$
– bof
2 days ago












$begingroup$
Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
$endgroup$
– zhw.
2 days ago




$begingroup$
Yes, I think the edit is good. +1
$endgroup$
– zhw.
2 days ago











0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago
















0












$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago














0












0








0





$begingroup$

For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



For $X=Bbb R$, it's homeomorphic with any open interval, and $U_nsubseteq U_{n+1}$ implies here that $U_n$ is a subinterval.

Thus, we can choose decreasing $a_n$ and increasing $b_n$ such that $U_n$ is homeomorphically mapped to $(a_n, b_n)$.

Then, $cup_nU_n$ will be homeomorphic with $(inf a_n, sup b_n) $.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 2 days ago

























answered 2 days ago









BerciBerci

60.3k23672




60.3k23672












  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago


















  • $begingroup$
    This does not appear to answer the question.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Your edit has not changed much.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Rust
    2 days ago
















$begingroup$
This does not appear to answer the question.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago




$begingroup$
This does not appear to answer the question.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago




1




1




$begingroup$
Your edit has not changed much.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago




$begingroup$
Your edit has not changed much.
$endgroup$
– Dan Rust
2 days ago


















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