Bicommutant theorem for commutative operator algebras












3












$begingroup$


Let $mathcal{B}(H)$ denote the space of bounded linear operators on a complex Hilbert space $H$. The von Neumann bicommutant theorem says:



Theorem. Suppose that $mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ and that $mathcal{A}$ contains the identity operator. If $mathcal{A}$ is closed with respect to the strong operator topology, then $mathcal{A}$ coincides with its bicommutant $mathcal{A}''$.



[Note: The commutant $mathcal{S}'$ of a subset $mathcal{S} subseteq mathcal{B}(H)$ is defined as the set of all operators in $mathcal{B}(H)$ that commute with all operators in $mathcal{S}$.]



Question. Does this theorem remain true if we replace the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$" with the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a commutative subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$"?



The question seems to be a bit bold at first glance, but it is motivated by the following simple finite-fimensional observation:



Motivation. The bicommutant theorem fails if we merely assume $mathcal{A}$ to be a subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ that is strongly closed and contains the identity operator. As a simple counterexample we can choose $mathcal{A}$ to be the set of all upper triangular matrices in $mathbb{C}^{2times 2} = mathcal{B}(mathbb{C}^2)$.



On the other hand, the algebra $mathcal{A}$ is not commutative in this example, and if we try to "adjust" the example by choosing $mathcal{A}$ as the commutative algebra
begin{align*}
mathcal{A} := {
begin{pmatrix}
a & b newline
0 & a
end{pmatrix}: ;
a, b in mathbb{C}
},
end{align*}
,
then we indeed have $mathcal{A} = mathcal{A}''$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Let $mathcal{B}(H)$ denote the space of bounded linear operators on a complex Hilbert space $H$. The von Neumann bicommutant theorem says:



    Theorem. Suppose that $mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ and that $mathcal{A}$ contains the identity operator. If $mathcal{A}$ is closed with respect to the strong operator topology, then $mathcal{A}$ coincides with its bicommutant $mathcal{A}''$.



    [Note: The commutant $mathcal{S}'$ of a subset $mathcal{S} subseteq mathcal{B}(H)$ is defined as the set of all operators in $mathcal{B}(H)$ that commute with all operators in $mathcal{S}$.]



    Question. Does this theorem remain true if we replace the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$" with the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a commutative subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$"?



    The question seems to be a bit bold at first glance, but it is motivated by the following simple finite-fimensional observation:



    Motivation. The bicommutant theorem fails if we merely assume $mathcal{A}$ to be a subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ that is strongly closed and contains the identity operator. As a simple counterexample we can choose $mathcal{A}$ to be the set of all upper triangular matrices in $mathbb{C}^{2times 2} = mathcal{B}(mathbb{C}^2)$.



    On the other hand, the algebra $mathcal{A}$ is not commutative in this example, and if we try to "adjust" the example by choosing $mathcal{A}$ as the commutative algebra
    begin{align*}
    mathcal{A} := {
    begin{pmatrix}
    a & b newline
    0 & a
    end{pmatrix}: ;
    a, b in mathbb{C}
    },
    end{align*}
    ,
    then we indeed have $mathcal{A} = mathcal{A}''$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Let $mathcal{B}(H)$ denote the space of bounded linear operators on a complex Hilbert space $H$. The von Neumann bicommutant theorem says:



      Theorem. Suppose that $mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ and that $mathcal{A}$ contains the identity operator. If $mathcal{A}$ is closed with respect to the strong operator topology, then $mathcal{A}$ coincides with its bicommutant $mathcal{A}''$.



      [Note: The commutant $mathcal{S}'$ of a subset $mathcal{S} subseteq mathcal{B}(H)$ is defined as the set of all operators in $mathcal{B}(H)$ that commute with all operators in $mathcal{S}$.]



      Question. Does this theorem remain true if we replace the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$" with the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a commutative subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$"?



      The question seems to be a bit bold at first glance, but it is motivated by the following simple finite-fimensional observation:



      Motivation. The bicommutant theorem fails if we merely assume $mathcal{A}$ to be a subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ that is strongly closed and contains the identity operator. As a simple counterexample we can choose $mathcal{A}$ to be the set of all upper triangular matrices in $mathbb{C}^{2times 2} = mathcal{B}(mathbb{C}^2)$.



      On the other hand, the algebra $mathcal{A}$ is not commutative in this example, and if we try to "adjust" the example by choosing $mathcal{A}$ as the commutative algebra
      begin{align*}
      mathcal{A} := {
      begin{pmatrix}
      a & b newline
      0 & a
      end{pmatrix}: ;
      a, b in mathbb{C}
      },
      end{align*}
      ,
      then we indeed have $mathcal{A} = mathcal{A}''$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $mathcal{B}(H)$ denote the space of bounded linear operators on a complex Hilbert space $H$. The von Neumann bicommutant theorem says:



      Theorem. Suppose that $mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ and that $mathcal{A}$ contains the identity operator. If $mathcal{A}$ is closed with respect to the strong operator topology, then $mathcal{A}$ coincides with its bicommutant $mathcal{A}''$.



      [Note: The commutant $mathcal{S}'$ of a subset $mathcal{S} subseteq mathcal{B}(H)$ is defined as the set of all operators in $mathcal{B}(H)$ that commute with all operators in $mathcal{S}$.]



      Question. Does this theorem remain true if we replace the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a $C^*$-subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$" with the assumption "$mathcal{A}$ is a commutative subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$"?



      The question seems to be a bit bold at first glance, but it is motivated by the following simple finite-fimensional observation:



      Motivation. The bicommutant theorem fails if we merely assume $mathcal{A}$ to be a subalgebra of $mathcal{B}(H)$ that is strongly closed and contains the identity operator. As a simple counterexample we can choose $mathcal{A}$ to be the set of all upper triangular matrices in $mathbb{C}^{2times 2} = mathcal{B}(mathbb{C}^2)$.



      On the other hand, the algebra $mathcal{A}$ is not commutative in this example, and if we try to "adjust" the example by choosing $mathcal{A}$ as the commutative algebra
      begin{align*}
      mathcal{A} := {
      begin{pmatrix}
      a & b newline
      0 & a
      end{pmatrix}: ;
      a, b in mathbb{C}
      },
      end{align*}
      ,
      then we indeed have $mathcal{A} = mathcal{A}''$.







      fa.functional-analysis matrices oa.operator-algebras operator-theory banach-algebras






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      asked 7 hours ago









      Jochen GlueckJochen Glueck

      2,94611323




      2,94611323






















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          The answer is negative. Consider the Hardy space $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ consisting of holomorphic functions admitting bounded extension to the unit circle and view it is a subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T})$. Let us compute the commutant. Denote the operator of multiplication by $z$ by $M_z$. If $T$ belongs to the commutant of $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, it commutes with $M_z$. But it also has to commute with its inverse $M_{overline{z}}$. But these two generate $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, so the commutant is equal to $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, hence also the bicommutant, as this a maximal abelian subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T}))$. It remains to see that $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ is strongly closed, but this is simple: a function $fin L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ belongs to $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ iff all of its negative Fourier coefficients vanish and this property is clearly preserved by strong convergence (even by weak convergence).






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            That's great, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen Glueck
            4 hours ago











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          $begingroup$

          The answer is negative. Consider the Hardy space $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ consisting of holomorphic functions admitting bounded extension to the unit circle and view it is a subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T})$. Let us compute the commutant. Denote the operator of multiplication by $z$ by $M_z$. If $T$ belongs to the commutant of $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, it commutes with $M_z$. But it also has to commute with its inverse $M_{overline{z}}$. But these two generate $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, so the commutant is equal to $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, hence also the bicommutant, as this a maximal abelian subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T}))$. It remains to see that $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ is strongly closed, but this is simple: a function $fin L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ belongs to $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ iff all of its negative Fourier coefficients vanish and this property is clearly preserved by strong convergence (even by weak convergence).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's great, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen Glueck
            4 hours ago
















          5












          $begingroup$

          The answer is negative. Consider the Hardy space $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ consisting of holomorphic functions admitting bounded extension to the unit circle and view it is a subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T})$. Let us compute the commutant. Denote the operator of multiplication by $z$ by $M_z$. If $T$ belongs to the commutant of $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, it commutes with $M_z$. But it also has to commute with its inverse $M_{overline{z}}$. But these two generate $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, so the commutant is equal to $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, hence also the bicommutant, as this a maximal abelian subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T}))$. It remains to see that $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ is strongly closed, but this is simple: a function $fin L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ belongs to $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ iff all of its negative Fourier coefficients vanish and this property is clearly preserved by strong convergence (even by weak convergence).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            That's great, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen Glueck
            4 hours ago














          5












          5








          5





          $begingroup$

          The answer is negative. Consider the Hardy space $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ consisting of holomorphic functions admitting bounded extension to the unit circle and view it is a subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T})$. Let us compute the commutant. Denote the operator of multiplication by $z$ by $M_z$. If $T$ belongs to the commutant of $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, it commutes with $M_z$. But it also has to commute with its inverse $M_{overline{z}}$. But these two generate $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, so the commutant is equal to $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, hence also the bicommutant, as this a maximal abelian subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T}))$. It remains to see that $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ is strongly closed, but this is simple: a function $fin L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ belongs to $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ iff all of its negative Fourier coefficients vanish and this property is clearly preserved by strong convergence (even by weak convergence).






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The answer is negative. Consider the Hardy space $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ consisting of holomorphic functions admitting bounded extension to the unit circle and view it is a subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T})$. Let us compute the commutant. Denote the operator of multiplication by $z$ by $M_z$. If $T$ belongs to the commutant of $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, it commutes with $M_z$. But it also has to commute with its inverse $M_{overline{z}}$. But these two generate $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, so the commutant is equal to $L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$, hence also the bicommutant, as this a maximal abelian subalgebra of $B(L^{2}(mathbb{T}))$. It remains to see that $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ is strongly closed, but this is simple: a function $fin L^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ belongs to $H^{infty}(mathbb{T})$ iff all of its negative Fourier coefficients vanish and this property is clearly preserved by strong convergence (even by weak convergence).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered 5 hours ago









          Mateusz WasilewskiMateusz Wasilewski

          2,905920




          2,905920












          • $begingroup$
            That's great, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen Glueck
            4 hours ago


















          • $begingroup$
            That's great, thanks!
            $endgroup$
            – Jochen Glueck
            4 hours ago
















          $begingroup$
          That's great, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Jochen Glueck
          4 hours ago




          $begingroup$
          That's great, thanks!
          $endgroup$
          – Jochen Glueck
          4 hours ago


















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