Does $(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}$ with $x_2=x_3=1$ define a sequence that is integral at...
$begingroup$
My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):
$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$
The task I got from him:
- The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.
- Make a conjecture and prove it.
Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:
b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;
And I got the following results:
$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$
Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).
So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:
table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]
...and the output was:
{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53,
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}
Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):
$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.
Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:
$$y_n=n x_n$$
...which simplifies (1) a bit:
$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$
...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).
sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):
$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$
The task I got from him:
- The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.
- Make a conjecture and prove it.
Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:
b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;
And I got the following results:
$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$
Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).
So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:
table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]
...and the output was:
{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53,
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}
Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):
$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.
Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:
$$y_n=n x_n$$
...which simplifies (1) a bit:
$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$
...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).
sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeleda
throughz
) is greater than zero, thenk
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):
$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$
The task I got from him:
- The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.
- Make a conjecture and prove it.
Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:
b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;
And I got the following results:
$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$
Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).
So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:
table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]
...and the output was:
{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53,
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}
Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):
$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.
Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:
$$y_n=n x_n$$
...which simplifies (1) a bit:
$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$
...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).
sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations
$endgroup$
My son gave me the following recurrence formula for $x_n$ ($nge2$):
$$(n+1)(n-2)x_{n+1}=n(n^2-n-1)x_n-(n-1)^3x_{n-1}tag{1}$$
$$x_2=x_3=1$$
The task I got from him:
- The sequence has an interesting property, find it out.
- Make a conjecture and prove it.
Obviously I had to start with a few values and calculating them by hand turned out to be difficult. So I used Mathematica and defined the sequence as follows:
b[n_] := b[n] = n (n^2 - n - 1) a[n] - (n - 1)^3 a[n - 1];
a[n_] := a[n] = b[n - 1]/(n (n - 3));
a[2] = 1;
a[3] = 1;
And I got the following results:
$$ a_4=frac{7}{4}, a_5=5, a_6=frac{121}{6}, a_7=103, a_8=frac{5041}{8}, a_9=frac{40321}{9}, \ a_{10}=frac{362881}{10}, a_{11}=329891, a_{12}=frac{39916801}{12}, a_{13}=36846277, a_{14}=frac{6227020801}{14}dots$$
Numbers don't make any sense but it's strange that the sequence produces integer values from time to time. It's not something that I expected from a pretty complex definition like (1).
So I decided to find the values of $n$ producing integer values of $a_n$. I did an experiment for $2le n le 100$:
table = Table[{i, a[i]}, {i, 2, 100}];
integers = Select[table, (IntegerQ[#[[2]]]) &];
itegerIndexes = Map[#[[1]] &, integers]
...and the output was:
{2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53,
59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89, 97}
Conjecture (pretty amazing, at least to me):
$a_n$ is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime.
Interesting primality test, isn't it? The trick is to prove that it's correct. I have started with the substitution:
$$y_n=n x_n$$
...which simplifies (1) a bit:
$$(n-2)y_{n+1}=(n^2-n-1)y_n-(n-1)^2y_{n-1}$$
...but I did not get much further (the next step, I guess, should be rearrangement).
sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations
sequences-and-series elementary-number-theory prime-numbers recurrence-relations
edited 9 hours ago
YuiTo Cheng
2,0532637
2,0532637
asked yesterday
OldboyOldboy
8,83111138
8,83111138
2
$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeleda
throughz
) is greater than zero, thenk
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeleda
throughz
) is greater than zero, thenk
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.
$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago
2
2
$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled
a
through z
) is greater than zero, then k
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled
a
through z
) is greater than zero, then k
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$ If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$ This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$ hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).
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2
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Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
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– Oldboy
yesterday
2
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I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
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– FredH
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment:
Numbers don't make any sense
Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{5}=5,quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{7}=103,quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{11}=329891,quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
$$
Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
$$
At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:
$$
r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
$$
In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)
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$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
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– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
add a comment |
Your Answer
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
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$begingroup$
The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$ If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$ This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$ hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$ If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$ This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$ hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$ If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$ This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$ hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$
$endgroup$
The given difference equation can be solved in the following way. We have for $nge 3$,
$$
(n-2)(y_{n+1}-y_n) = (n-1)^2(y_n-y_{n-1}),\
frac{y_{n+1}-y_n}{n-1}=(n-1)frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}.
$$ If we let $displaystyle z_n=frac{y_{n}-y_{n-1}}{n-2}$, it follows that
$$
z_{n+1}=(n-1)z_n=(n-1)(n-2)z_{n-1}=cdots =(n-1)!z_3=(n-1)!frac{3x_3-2x_2}{1}=(n-1)!
$$ This gives
$$
y_{n+1}-y_n=(n-1)(n-1)!=n!-(n-1)!,
$$ hence $y_n = nx_n = (n-1)!+c$ for some $c$. Plugging $n=2$ yields $2=1!+c$, thus we have that $$displaystyle x_n =frac{(n-1)!+1}{n}.$$
answered yesterday
SongSong
18k21449
18k21449
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).
$endgroup$
The $n^{rm{th}}$ term of the sequence is $dfrac{(n-1)! + 1}{n}$, which is an integer if and only if $n$ is prime (according to Wilson's Theorem).
answered yesterday
FredHFredH
2,1741018
2,1741018
2
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
$begingroup$
Yes, but it is not obvious. Can you prove it?
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
2
2
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
$begingroup$
I can and I did. The algebra is tedious but not difficult.
$endgroup$
– FredH
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
$begingroup$
I have upvoted your answer but I accepted the one with the whole solution. :)
$endgroup$
– Oldboy
yesterday
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment:
Numbers don't make any sense
Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{5}=5,quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{7}=103,quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{11}=329891,quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
$$
Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
$$
At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:
$$
r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
$$
In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment:
Numbers don't make any sense
Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{5}=5,quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{7}=103,quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{11}=329891,quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
$$
Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
$$
At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:
$$
r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
$$
In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Too long for a comment:
Numbers don't make any sense
Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{5}=5,quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{7}=103,quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{11}=329891,quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
$$
Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
$$
At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:
$$
r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
$$
In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)
$endgroup$
Too long for a comment:
Numbers don't make any sense
Actually, they do ! :-) Just take a closer look at the sequence's composite-index denominators, and notice the following:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{5}=5,quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{7}=103,quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{11}=329891,quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{13}=36846277,quaddots
$$
Let us now rewrite the sequence's prime-indexed elements in a similar manner, for a more uniform approach:
$$
a_{color{blue}4}=frac{7}{color{blue}4},quad
a_{color{blue}5}=frac{25}{color{blue}5},quad
a_{color{blue}6}=frac{121}{color{blue}6},quad
a_{color{blue}7}=frac{721}{color{blue}7},quad
a_{color{blue}8}=frac{5041}{color{blue}8},quad
a_{color{blue}9}=frac{40321}{color{blue}9},quad
\~\~\
a_{color{blue}{10}}=frac{362881}{color{blue}{10}},
a_{color{blue}{11}}=frac{3628801}{color{blue}{11}},quad
a_{color{blue}{12}}=frac{39916801}{color{blue}{12}},quad
a_{color{blue}{13}}=frac{479001601}{color{blue}{13}},quaddots
$$
At this point, we might be able to cheat, and use OEIS to identify the afferent sequence $color{blue}{b_n=ncdot a_n}$ by its first few elements, yielding three possible suspects: but let's say that our mathematical virtue and intellectual integrity will prevail over our base urges of rampant curiosity, and we might resist the temptation to do so. Could we then, without any outside aide, still manage to deduce an expression for $b_n$ ? Indeed, even a superficial glance will undoubtedly reveal the growth to resemble what one might otherwise expect to see in a geometric progression, rather than an arithmetic one. We then have:
$$
r_{color{blue}4}=frac{25}{7}simeqcolor{blue}4,quad
r_{color{blue}5}=frac{121}{25}simeqcolor{blue}5,quad
r_{color{blue}6}=frac{721}{121}simeqcolor{blue}6,quad
r_{color{blue}7}=frac{5041}{721}simeqcolor{blue}7,quaddots
$$
In short, $color{blue}{r_n=dfrac{b_{n+1}}{b_n}simeq n}.~$ A type of “modified geometric progression”, as it were, with a variable ratio equal to the index itself: Does this sound in any way familiar ? If no, there is still no need to worry: We'll get to the bottom of it soon enough, anyway. More precisely, we have $color{blue}{b_{n+1}=ncdot b_n-(n-1)}.~$ Now we are left with showing that, for prime values of the index p, $~color{blue}{a_p=dfrac{b_p}pinmathbb N},~$ starting from $color{blue}{b_2=2}.~$ Could mathematical induction work in this case, or does the seemingly random distribution of primes throw a wrench into such an approach ? And, if so, could we then maybe slightly modify it, to fit the new conditions ? What would you say ? :-)
answered 21 hours ago
LucianLucian
41.4k159130
41.4k159130
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
$begingroup$
I'm confused. What does this add to the existing answers which already give the explicit formula $x_n=((n-1)!+1)/n$?
$endgroup$
– YiFan
21 hours ago
3
3
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
$begingroup$
@YiFan: Clarity, perhaps ? Maybe a bit of intuition ?
$endgroup$
– Lucian
21 hours ago
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
The fact that this sequence starts with the first prime index looks like a huge hint, seeing as mathematicians would start with n= 1 and software devs with n = 0 :-)
$endgroup$
– Carl Witthoft
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
If you're interested in returning the favor to your son, there are Diophantine Equations which enumerate all primes. The result is an inequality such that, if this polynomial function (whose inputs are 26 whole numbers labeled
a
throughz
) is greater than zero, thenk
, the 11th argument to the function, is prime, and every prime on the entire numberline is enumerated this way.$endgroup$
– Cort Ammon
yesterday
2
$begingroup$
Looking at OEIS reveals origins of this problem, numerators are oeis.org/A005450, denominators are oeis.org/A005451, and in the references in the second one you find this is from Problem 10578 in The American Mathematical Monthly Vol. 104, No. 3 (Mar., 1997), page 270, see jstor.org/stable/….
$endgroup$
– Sil
6 hours ago