Can a Jewish man be a sperm donor?











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What are the Halachik issues with donating sperm in a non-Jewish community?






halacha pregnancy-birth







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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite












    What are the Halachik issues with donating sperm in a non-Jewish community?






    halacha pregnancy-birth







    share|improve this question


























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      What are the Halachik issues with donating sperm in a non-Jewish community?






      halacha pregnancy-birth







      share|improve this question















      What are the Halachik issues with donating sperm in a non-Jewish community?






      halacha pregnancy-birth




      halacha pregnancy-birth






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited 2 days ago









      Al Berko

      3,806426




      3,806426










      asked Nov 28 at 1:05









      Lages

      843




      843






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          up vote
          7
          down vote













          No, a Jewish man cannot be a sperm donor.



          Based on tshuvos from Reb Moshe (Igrot Moshe, Even Ha'Ezer 1:71 & 4:32.5) we can say




          1. Niuff byad is an issur which only married couples who undergo IVF can get around, but single guys in a clinic can't.


          2. The assumption is that the sperm will go to a nonjew, so there is no kiyum of pru urvu to dissipate the issur of hotzaas zera livatala.


          3. Since you can't guarantee that a Jewish woman won't end up impregnated with said sperm, you run into a problem of siblings from the same father possibly marrying each other, which is arayos and makes mamzeirim.







          share|improve this answer























          • Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 1:53










          • I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:11










          • I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 2:16










          • @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:49






          • 2




            This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
            – msh210♦
            Nov 28 at 4:25





















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          7
          down vote













          No, a Jewish man cannot be a sperm donor.



          Based on tshuvos from Reb Moshe (Igrot Moshe, Even Ha'Ezer 1:71 & 4:32.5) we can say




          1. Niuff byad is an issur which only married couples who undergo IVF can get around, but single guys in a clinic can't.


          2. The assumption is that the sperm will go to a nonjew, so there is no kiyum of pru urvu to dissipate the issur of hotzaas zera livatala.


          3. Since you can't guarantee that a Jewish woman won't end up impregnated with said sperm, you run into a problem of siblings from the same father possibly marrying each other, which is arayos and makes mamzeirim.







          share|improve this answer























          • Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 1:53










          • I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:11










          • I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 2:16










          • @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:49






          • 2




            This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
            – msh210♦
            Nov 28 at 4:25

















          up vote
          7
          down vote













          No, a Jewish man cannot be a sperm donor.



          Based on tshuvos from Reb Moshe (Igrot Moshe, Even Ha'Ezer 1:71 & 4:32.5) we can say




          1. Niuff byad is an issur which only married couples who undergo IVF can get around, but single guys in a clinic can't.


          2. The assumption is that the sperm will go to a nonjew, so there is no kiyum of pru urvu to dissipate the issur of hotzaas zera livatala.


          3. Since you can't guarantee that a Jewish woman won't end up impregnated with said sperm, you run into a problem of siblings from the same father possibly marrying each other, which is arayos and makes mamzeirim.







          share|improve this answer























          • Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 1:53










          • I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:11










          • I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 2:16










          • @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:49






          • 2




            This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
            – msh210♦
            Nov 28 at 4:25















          up vote
          7
          down vote










          up vote
          7
          down vote









          No, a Jewish man cannot be a sperm donor.



          Based on tshuvos from Reb Moshe (Igrot Moshe, Even Ha'Ezer 1:71 & 4:32.5) we can say




          1. Niuff byad is an issur which only married couples who undergo IVF can get around, but single guys in a clinic can't.


          2. The assumption is that the sperm will go to a nonjew, so there is no kiyum of pru urvu to dissipate the issur of hotzaas zera livatala.


          3. Since you can't guarantee that a Jewish woman won't end up impregnated with said sperm, you run into a problem of siblings from the same father possibly marrying each other, which is arayos and makes mamzeirim.







          share|improve this answer














          No, a Jewish man cannot be a sperm donor.



          Based on tshuvos from Reb Moshe (Igrot Moshe, Even Ha'Ezer 1:71 & 4:32.5) we can say




          1. Niuff byad is an issur which only married couples who undergo IVF can get around, but single guys in a clinic can't.


          2. The assumption is that the sperm will go to a nonjew, so there is no kiyum of pru urvu to dissipate the issur of hotzaas zera livatala.


          3. Since you can't guarantee that a Jewish woman won't end up impregnated with said sperm, you run into a problem of siblings from the same father possibly marrying each other, which is arayos and makes mamzeirim.








          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 2 days ago

























          answered Nov 28 at 1:26









          user6591

          24.9k12656




          24.9k12656












          • Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 1:53










          • I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:11










          • I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 2:16










          • @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:49






          • 2




            This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
            – msh210♦
            Nov 28 at 4:25




















          • Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 1:53










          • I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:11










          • I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
            – Double AA♦
            Nov 28 at 2:16










          • @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
            – user6591
            Nov 28 at 2:49






          • 2




            This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
            – msh210♦
            Nov 28 at 4:25


















          Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
          – Double AA♦
          Nov 28 at 1:53




          Do we need Kiyum Pru uRvu to dissipate it? Wouldn't we still allow for Bedika of a Kerut Shofkha to allow him to marry an Aylonit?
          – Double AA♦
          Nov 28 at 1:53












          I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
          – user6591
          Nov 28 at 2:11




          I'm not familiar with that. I thought we don't ever allow bedikos for marriage. If you have something to share I'd be iinterested in seeing it.
          – user6591
          Nov 28 at 2:11












          I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
          – Double AA♦
          Nov 28 at 2:16




          I thought RMFs whole proof was from a Gemara in Yevamot about checking a Krut Shofkha to see if he could marry, and IVF is a Kol Shekein
          – Double AA♦
          Nov 28 at 2:16












          @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
          – user6591
          Nov 28 at 2:49




          @Double He mentions the theoretical case of using hot bread to test without niuf yes, but I don't think he believes that is actually muttar to do. The gemara itself was docheh that approach. Have you ever seen someone allowing that bedika?
          – user6591
          Nov 28 at 2:49




          2




          2




          This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
          – msh210♦
          Nov 28 at 4:25






          This answer would be vastly improved if it would at the very least list the responsa of R'MF it refers to. Ideally, it should say how it got from them to its conclusions. Oh, and translating words into English would help, too.
          – msh210♦
          Nov 28 at 4:25





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