Did prescriptivists make up pied-piping in relative infinitive constructions?





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A quick Internet search suggests that pied-piping in relative clauses was a natural feature of English even though it is loved by prescriptivists; it existed in older stages of the language, and it was declining by the 17th century, but it was preferred by some prescriptivists and survived into the modern times.



What is the history of pied-piping in relative infinitive constructions as in the phrase a room in which to read books? Was it actually more common (or obligatory) in the past as in relative clauses, or did prescriptivists make it up, thinking that the grammar of English should be like that of Latin?










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  • 2




    I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago








  • 1




    Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago












  • @sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
    – Pteromys
    2 days ago










  • So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
    – FumbleFingers
    2 days ago








  • 2




    The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago

















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1












A quick Internet search suggests that pied-piping in relative clauses was a natural feature of English even though it is loved by prescriptivists; it existed in older stages of the language, and it was declining by the 17th century, but it was preferred by some prescriptivists and survived into the modern times.



What is the history of pied-piping in relative infinitive constructions as in the phrase a room in which to read books? Was it actually more common (or obligatory) in the past as in relative clauses, or did prescriptivists make it up, thinking that the grammar of English should be like that of Latin?










share|improve this question




















  • 2




    I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago








  • 1




    Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago












  • @sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
    – Pteromys
    2 days ago










  • So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
    – FumbleFingers
    2 days ago








  • 2




    The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1





A quick Internet search suggests that pied-piping in relative clauses was a natural feature of English even though it is loved by prescriptivists; it existed in older stages of the language, and it was declining by the 17th century, but it was preferred by some prescriptivists and survived into the modern times.



What is the history of pied-piping in relative infinitive constructions as in the phrase a room in which to read books? Was it actually more common (or obligatory) in the past as in relative clauses, or did prescriptivists make it up, thinking that the grammar of English should be like that of Latin?










share|improve this question















A quick Internet search suggests that pied-piping in relative clauses was a natural feature of English even though it is loved by prescriptivists; it existed in older stages of the language, and it was declining by the 17th century, but it was preferred by some prescriptivists and survived into the modern times.



What is the history of pied-piping in relative infinitive constructions as in the phrase a room in which to read books? Was it actually more common (or obligatory) in the past as in relative clauses, or did prescriptivists make it up, thinking that the grammar of English should be like that of Latin?







prepositions infinitives relative-pronouns pied-piping






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edited yesterday









sumelic

44.5k7105207




44.5k7105207










asked 2 days ago









Pteromys

1786




1786








  • 2




    I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago








  • 1




    Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago












  • @sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
    – Pteromys
    2 days ago










  • So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
    – FumbleFingers
    2 days ago








  • 2




    The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago














  • 2




    I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago








  • 1




    Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
    – sumelic
    2 days ago












  • @sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
    – Pteromys
    2 days ago










  • So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
    – FumbleFingers
    2 days ago








  • 2




    The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago








2




2




I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
– sumelic
2 days ago






I think this question would be easier to understand if you gave an example of a sentence using this construction. Are you talking about stuff like "a room in which to read books" or "a box in which to store the papers"?
– sumelic
2 days ago






1




1




Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
– sumelic
2 days ago






Would the sentence from your previous question qualify as an example: "I have no pen with which to write letters"?
– sumelic
2 days ago














@sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
– Pteromys
2 days ago




@sumelic Regarding what I meant by relative infinitive constructions: to your first question: both sentences qualify as example, and to your second question, yes.
– Pteromys
2 days ago












So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
– FumbleFingers
2 days ago






So far as I can see, pied-piped infinitives only arise in the context of other languages (particularly, German, Dutch, Latin). Can you give an example of what you're asking about in English, in the question text itself?
– FumbleFingers
2 days ago






2




2




The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
– Jason Bassford
2 days ago




The question needs to be expanded to give more detail about what's being asked, along with some examples. Everything needed to understand the question should be provided in the question itself.
– Jason Bassford
2 days ago















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