Starting an independent clause with “more,” to omit the use of the adverb “specifically”
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Would it be incorrect English to do what I noted above? That is, if my sentence looked like this:
[..]; more specifically,[..]
Could I make it look like this:
[..]; more,[..]
adverbs
New contributor
add a comment |
up vote
0
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Would it be incorrect English to do what I noted above? That is, if my sentence looked like this:
[..]; more specifically,[..]
Could I make it look like this:
[..]; more,[..]
adverbs
New contributor
Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Would it be incorrect English to do what I noted above? That is, if my sentence looked like this:
[..]; more specifically,[..]
Could I make it look like this:
[..]; more,[..]
adverbs
New contributor
Would it be incorrect English to do what I noted above? That is, if my sentence looked like this:
[..]; more specifically,[..]
Could I make it look like this:
[..]; more,[..]
adverbs
adverbs
New contributor
New contributor
New contributor
asked Dec 15 at 20:37
Cal
32
32
New contributor
New contributor
Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54
add a comment |
Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54
Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54
add a comment |
1 Answer
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oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Not as far as I'm aware, but you can omit the 'more', leaving you with something like this:
I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished.
Hope this helps.
New contributor
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
|
show 1 more comment
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Not as far as I'm aware, but you can omit the 'more', leaving you with something like this:
I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished.
Hope this helps.
New contributor
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Not as far as I'm aware, but you can omit the 'more', leaving you with something like this:
I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished.
Hope this helps.
New contributor
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Not as far as I'm aware, but you can omit the 'more', leaving you with something like this:
I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished.
Hope this helps.
New contributor
Not as far as I'm aware, but you can omit the 'more', leaving you with something like this:
I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished.
Hope this helps.
New contributor
New contributor
answered Dec 15 at 20:45
A Lambent Eye
66215
66215
New contributor
New contributor
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
|
show 1 more comment
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
Really? Can you say how that works?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:14
1
1
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
It is the same as "more specifically", but less so. "Specifically" is an adverb, more is 'describing' the adverb. One might also say "less specifically", for example.
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:18
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
Yes, of course. How does that not insist that your clause is dependant?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:40
1
1
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
I'm not sure I understand. What would make which clause dependent in what manner?
– A Lambent Eye
Dec 15 at 23:42
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
How many clauses are there in "I am hungry; specifically, I'm famished." How do they relate to the OQ or to each other?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:50
|
show 1 more comment
Cal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Cal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Cal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
Cal is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
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Starting any clause with a conjunction like “more,” or “specifically” defines that clause as dependant on what went before… how could that not prohibit independence? Either way, "Can you suggest me…" will always be wrong. The correct uses are either "Can you suggest to me…" or just "Can you suggest…". Does that much make sense?
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 15 at 23:11
@RobbieGoodwin the initial part of your comment is useful, but I don't understand from "Either way" onwards. What does "Can you suggest me…" have to do with it?
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:36
As you've accepted an answer, I won't do the extra work preparing another, but it's worth noting that the answer doesn't address your question which asks about using "more" on its own. Yes you can - e.g. "I am hungry; more, I'm famished" where more is an adverb and is equivalent to "more than that", "additionally" or "further" - but it's not a common usage and risks confusing a reader not familiar with that usage.
– Chappo
Dec 16 at 0:48
"More" is not a synonym of "specifically", and it's not a conjunction but an adverb serving as a connective adjunct where it modifies the clause that follows it. It works the same way as "further" or "moreover".
– BillJ
Dec 16 at 10:42
Chappo thanks for that above and I'd almost think 'from "Either way" onwards' was a mistake I Posted in the wrong thread… I'd happily delete it but that would leave your Comment hung out to dry…
– Robbie Goodwin
Dec 16 at 21:54