Been versus gone
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
add a comment |
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago
add a comment |
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
What is the correct rephrasing for this sentence?
I went to the party and now I regret it.
"I should not have gone to the party " or
"I shouldn't have been to the party"
Cheers!
grammar differences
grammar differences
asked 13 hours ago
IsabelIsabel
132
132
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago
add a comment |
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
2
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
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Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
New contributor
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
New contributor
add a comment |
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
New contributor
add a comment |
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
New contributor
Either one is correct for the sentence. To me, "been to" seems more formal, or perhaps more British than American.
But if it were "gone to" or "been at", one can lean more than the other towards specific senses. If something bad happened at the party, if it was a wrong time, wrong place sort of thing, then, perhaps, you "should not have been" there. If you should have skipped the party because the act of going was a bad idea, then you, slightly more likely, "should not have gone".
New contributor
New contributor
answered 6 hours ago
PvtBuddiePvtBuddie
1024
1024
New contributor
New contributor
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add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
add a comment |
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
To be true, "have been" and "have gone" mean the same. "Be" as an intransitive verb means "be here", "go to and return from" or similar. The Wiktionary gives this example :
- The post man has been to-day, but my tickets have still not yet come. I have been to Spain many times. Moscow, huh? I've never been. But it sounds fascinating.
Mark the use of " to be " verb in the sentence. Your alternative suggestions are correct and perfectly grammatical.
answered 12 hours ago
Barid Baran AcharyaBarid Baran Acharya
1,955613
1,955613
add a comment |
add a comment |
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Both seem grammatical to me. But it seems you can make other tenses of "I have gone to the party": namely "I went to the party, I go to the party". But you cannot make other tenses of "I have been to the party": like "*I was to the party, *I am to the party". Why?
– GEdgar
13 hours ago
2
"I've been to" is often used to refer to places rather than events. For example, "I've been to France" or "I've been to John's house". For this reason I would probably prefer "gone". However, I don't know if this a real distinction in meaning (and if so, whether this is strict) or just my own preference.
– Tim Foster
13 hours ago