Correct usage with grammar pattern “after”
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-1
Which one is correct?
1) After she took a bath, she drank coffee.
2) After she had taken a bath, she drank coffee.
Or are they both grammatically correct? If so, are they the same or different in meaning?
Thanks in advance.
grammar
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
|
show 6 more comments
-1
Which one is correct?
1) After she took a bath, she drank coffee.
2) After she had taken a bath, she drank coffee.
Or are they both grammatically correct? If so, are they the same or different in meaning?
Thanks in advance.
grammar
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
1
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
1
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33
|
show 6 more comments
-1
-1
-1
Which one is correct?
1) After she took a bath, she drank coffee.
2) After she had taken a bath, she drank coffee.
Or are they both grammatically correct? If so, are they the same or different in meaning?
Thanks in advance.
grammar
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
Which one is correct?
1) After she took a bath, she drank coffee.
2) After she had taken a bath, she drank coffee.
Or are they both grammatically correct? If so, are they the same or different in meaning?
Thanks in advance.
grammar
grammar
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
edited Apr 6 at 14:31
TrevorD
10.7k22558
10.7k22558
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
asked Apr 4 at 20:49
VegetarianFalconVegetarianFalcon
373
373
Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
1
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
1
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33
|
show 6 more comments
Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
1
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
1
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33
Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
1
1
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
1
1
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33
|
show 6 more comments
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Are they both correct?
– VegetarianFalcon
Apr 4 at 20:53
1
I wouldn't say that either is "incorrect". The second is a little odd. The first expresses a simple ordering of events, but "she had taken" in the second implies the achievement of a state, and after than one expects the result of that state. Eg, "she drank some coffee and got ready to go."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 20:54
To me the second option sounds more natural. As @HotLicks said, the first is just an order of events, whereas the second focuses on the consequence of having taken a bath (i.e. - she was out of the bath, clean and ready to go and drink some coffee).
– Tim Foster
Apr 4 at 21:04
Oops, "...after that one expects..."
– Hot Licks
Apr 4 at 21:06
1
@PhilipWood As a Brit, I beg to disagree with your comment, altho' I think the second may be more common, I wouldn't imply that the former is non-standard.
– TrevorD
Apr 6 at 14:33