Can a sequence be undefined at a point? [duplicate]
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Are undefined terms allowed in a sequence?
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A sequence which is a mapping from $mathbb{N} to mathbb{R}$.
For example can the sequence ${a_n} = 1/(3-n)$.
This would be undefined at $3$.
Is it a sequence?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
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marked as duplicate by Brahadeesh, drhab, Hans Lundmark, Lord Shark the Unknown, user10354138 2 days ago
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up vote
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down vote
favorite
This question already has an answer here:
Are undefined terms allowed in a sequence?
3 answers
A sequence which is a mapping from $mathbb{N} to mathbb{R}$.
For example can the sequence ${a_n} = 1/(3-n)$.
This would be undefined at $3$.
Is it a sequence?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
New contributor
marked as duplicate by Brahadeesh, drhab, Hans Lundmark, Lord Shark the Unknown, user10354138 2 days ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
This question already has an answer here:
Are undefined terms allowed in a sequence?
3 answers
A sequence which is a mapping from $mathbb{N} to mathbb{R}$.
For example can the sequence ${a_n} = 1/(3-n)$.
This would be undefined at $3$.
Is it a sequence?
real-analysis sequences-and-series
New contributor
This question already has an answer here:
Are undefined terms allowed in a sequence?
3 answers
A sequence which is a mapping from $mathbb{N} to mathbb{R}$.
For example can the sequence ${a_n} = 1/(3-n)$.
This would be undefined at $3$.
Is it a sequence?
This question already has an answer here:
Are undefined terms allowed in a sequence?
3 answers
real-analysis sequences-and-series
real-analysis sequences-and-series
New contributor
New contributor
edited 2 days ago
Brahadeesh
5,52941956
5,52941956
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asked 2 days ago
Sashin Chetty
91
91
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New contributor
marked as duplicate by Brahadeesh, drhab, Hans Lundmark, Lord Shark the Unknown, user10354138 2 days ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Brahadeesh, drhab, Hans Lundmark, Lord Shark the Unknown, user10354138 2 days ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
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up vote
7
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If you define a sequence as a mapping $f$ from $Bbb N$ to $Bbb R$, then no, a sequence cannot be undefined at a point $x$, since if $f(x)$ was not defined, then $f$ isn't a mapping.
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
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up vote
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If it's a sequence of real numbers, then go ahead and start noting the first few terms. In your case it will be:
$frac{1}{2}, 1, infty,-1, frac{-1}{2},...$
Is that really a sequence of real numbers? I'd say no, because $infty$ is not a real number.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
7
down vote
If you define a sequence as a mapping $f$ from $Bbb N$ to $Bbb R$, then no, a sequence cannot be undefined at a point $x$, since if $f(x)$ was not defined, then $f$ isn't a mapping.
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
If you define a sequence as a mapping $f$ from $Bbb N$ to $Bbb R$, then no, a sequence cannot be undefined at a point $x$, since if $f(x)$ was not defined, then $f$ isn't a mapping.
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
add a comment |
up vote
7
down vote
up vote
7
down vote
If you define a sequence as a mapping $f$ from $Bbb N$ to $Bbb R$, then no, a sequence cannot be undefined at a point $x$, since if $f(x)$ was not defined, then $f$ isn't a mapping.
If you define a sequence as a mapping $f$ from $Bbb N$ to $Bbb R$, then no, a sequence cannot be undefined at a point $x$, since if $f(x)$ was not defined, then $f$ isn't a mapping.
answered 2 days ago
Joey Kilpatrick
1,014121
1,014121
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
add a comment |
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
2
2
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
+1 for "just the facts", which is about all one can do unless the OP provides more information or context for the question. I was trying to write a comment about how $frac{1}{3-n}$ certainly defines a sequence if we begin with $n=4$ or later, and how the same infinite list of numbers can have different functions showing they're sequences, then started to trip over too many things, after which I pretty much decided to give it a pass, and then your answer showed up.
– Dave L. Renfro
2 days ago
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
If it's a sequence of real numbers, then go ahead and start noting the first few terms. In your case it will be:
$frac{1}{2}, 1, infty,-1, frac{-1}{2},...$
Is that really a sequence of real numbers? I'd say no, because $infty$ is not a real number.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
If it's a sequence of real numbers, then go ahead and start noting the first few terms. In your case it will be:
$frac{1}{2}, 1, infty,-1, frac{-1}{2},...$
Is that really a sequence of real numbers? I'd say no, because $infty$ is not a real number.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
If it's a sequence of real numbers, then go ahead and start noting the first few terms. In your case it will be:
$frac{1}{2}, 1, infty,-1, frac{-1}{2},...$
Is that really a sequence of real numbers? I'd say no, because $infty$ is not a real number.
If it's a sequence of real numbers, then go ahead and start noting the first few terms. In your case it will be:
$frac{1}{2}, 1, infty,-1, frac{-1}{2},...$
Is that really a sequence of real numbers? I'd say no, because $infty$ is not a real number.
answered 2 days ago
GuySa
414313
414313
add a comment |
add a comment |
Welcome to MSE. For some basic information about writing mathematics at this site see, e.g., basic help on mathjax notation, mathjax tutorial and quick reference, main meta site math tutorial and equation editing how-to.
– José Carlos Santos
2 days ago