Does a continuous verb form avoids a comma splice?












0















I realize this question has been done to death but I'm still questioning it.



The following sentence I feel does not contain a comma splice as the clause doesn't seem to hold up on its own:




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland being the latest example.




However, when I write it slightly differently, I'm pretty positive it is a comma splice.




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland is no exception.




Is this correct? And if so, why? Why does the continuous form make it not a comma splice. If it is indeed a comma splice, how would you punctuate it to capture the informal style of the author. An em dash, a semi-colon, a full-stop or and?



Thanks for the help.










share|improve this question























  • Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

    – tchrist
    2 days ago











  • @tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

    – tchrist
    2 days ago
















0















I realize this question has been done to death but I'm still questioning it.



The following sentence I feel does not contain a comma splice as the clause doesn't seem to hold up on its own:




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland being the latest example.




However, when I write it slightly differently, I'm pretty positive it is a comma splice.




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland is no exception.




Is this correct? And if so, why? Why does the continuous form make it not a comma splice. If it is indeed a comma splice, how would you punctuate it to capture the informal style of the author. An em dash, a semi-colon, a full-stop or and?



Thanks for the help.










share|improve this question























  • Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

    – tchrist
    2 days ago











  • @tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

    – tchrist
    2 days ago














0












0








0








I realize this question has been done to death but I'm still questioning it.



The following sentence I feel does not contain a comma splice as the clause doesn't seem to hold up on its own:




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland being the latest example.




However, when I write it slightly differently, I'm pretty positive it is a comma splice.




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland is no exception.




Is this correct? And if so, why? Why does the continuous form make it not a comma splice. If it is indeed a comma splice, how would you punctuate it to capture the informal style of the author. An em dash, a semi-colon, a full-stop or and?



Thanks for the help.










share|improve this question














I realize this question has been done to death but I'm still questioning it.



The following sentence I feel does not contain a comma splice as the clause doesn't seem to hold up on its own:




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland being the latest example.




However, when I write it slightly differently, I'm pretty positive it is a comma splice.




Most European countries have proceeded with significant liberalization of financial law since the 1980s, Ireland is no exception.




Is this correct? And if so, why? Why does the continuous form make it not a comma splice. If it is indeed a comma splice, how would you punctuate it to capture the informal style of the author. An em dash, a semi-colon, a full-stop or and?



Thanks for the help.







punctuation






share|improve this question













share|improve this question











share|improve this question




share|improve this question










asked 2 days ago









freeform23freeform23

63




63













  • Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

    – tchrist
    2 days ago











  • @tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

    – tchrist
    2 days ago



















  • Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

    – tchrist
    2 days ago











  • @tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

    – Jason Bassford
    2 days ago











  • @JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

    – tchrist
    2 days ago

















Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

– tchrist
2 days ago







Please define "comma splice" as you understand it.

– tchrist
2 days ago















The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

– Jason Bassford
2 days ago





The normal definition of a comma splice is a comma that separates two independent clauses. In your case, what comes after the comma could stand on its own as an independent clause. So, yes. The second example would normally be considered a comma splice. That doesn't necessarily mean that it's wrong to use it. however. Some instances of comma splices are acceptable. (Although in this case, my personal preference would be to add an and after it.)

– Jason Bassford
2 days ago













@JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

– tchrist
2 days ago





@JasonBassford "I came, I saw, and I conquered."

– tchrist
2 days ago













@tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

– Jason Bassford
2 days ago





@tchrist That's not a comma splice because of the final conjunctive and. Without the and it would be.

– Jason Bassford
2 days ago













@JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

– tchrist
2 days ago





@JasonBassford Are you claiming that omitting the and would somehow be an error??

– tchrist
2 days ago










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3














Ireland being the latest example is not in "the continuous form", which is constructed with a form of BE followed by the present participle. For that clause to "hold up on its own"—that is, constitute an independent clause—it would have to have that BE in a finite (tensed) form: in this case, the 3d person singular form is.



The clause is thus a subordinate clause, headed by a non-finite verbform, and the "comma splice rule" does not apply.






share|improve this answer
























  • Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • @tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

    – StoneyB
    2 days ago













  • Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

    – freeform23
    yesterday











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3














Ireland being the latest example is not in "the continuous form", which is constructed with a form of BE followed by the present participle. For that clause to "hold up on its own"—that is, constitute an independent clause—it would have to have that BE in a finite (tensed) form: in this case, the 3d person singular form is.



The clause is thus a subordinate clause, headed by a non-finite verbform, and the "comma splice rule" does not apply.






share|improve this answer
























  • Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • @tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

    – StoneyB
    2 days ago













  • Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

    – freeform23
    yesterday
















3














Ireland being the latest example is not in "the continuous form", which is constructed with a form of BE followed by the present participle. For that clause to "hold up on its own"—that is, constitute an independent clause—it would have to have that BE in a finite (tensed) form: in this case, the 3d person singular form is.



The clause is thus a subordinate clause, headed by a non-finite verbform, and the "comma splice rule" does not apply.






share|improve this answer
























  • Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • @tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

    – StoneyB
    2 days ago













  • Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

    – freeform23
    yesterday














3












3








3







Ireland being the latest example is not in "the continuous form", which is constructed with a form of BE followed by the present participle. For that clause to "hold up on its own"—that is, constitute an independent clause—it would have to have that BE in a finite (tensed) form: in this case, the 3d person singular form is.



The clause is thus a subordinate clause, headed by a non-finite verbform, and the "comma splice rule" does not apply.






share|improve this answer













Ireland being the latest example is not in "the continuous form", which is constructed with a form of BE followed by the present participle. For that clause to "hold up on its own"—that is, constitute an independent clause—it would have to have that BE in a finite (tensed) form: in this case, the 3d person singular form is.



The clause is thus a subordinate clause, headed by a non-finite verbform, and the "comma splice rule" does not apply.







share|improve this answer












share|improve this answer



share|improve this answer










answered 2 days ago









StoneyBStoneyB

64.3k3110211




64.3k3110211













  • Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • @tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

    – StoneyB
    2 days ago













  • Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

    – freeform23
    yesterday



















  • Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • @tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

    – StoneyB
    2 days ago













  • Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

    – tchrist
    2 days ago













  • Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

    – freeform23
    yesterday

















Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

– tchrist
2 days ago







Feels a bit like a gerund clause appositive to the sentence's subject,

– tchrist
2 days ago















@tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

– StoneyB
2 days ago







@tchrist Mmm ... I'd see it as a supplemental clause which in effect "modifies" the entire matrix clause. Ireland isn't an example of many European countries but of many European countries which have proceeded &c.

– StoneyB
2 days ago















Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

– tchrist
2 days ago







Sure, I didn't say it was one, just that it had some of that feel. Certainly it applies to the entire independent clause not just the subject alone..

– tchrist
2 days ago















Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

– freeform23
yesterday





Thanks. This answers the question nicely.

– freeform23
yesterday


















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