Is it correct to say “proud of having met you”, or should it be “proud to have met”?
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
add a comment |
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
Is it correct to say "I have proud of having met both of you"
- I am proud of having met both of you. (past present?)
- I am proud to have met both of you. (present perfect?)
What does the first one say? The word "having" sounds like it is happening, but it was done already. Is it right?
The second one sounds like it happened in the past. Does it mean it is finished? Inconclusive?
grammar tenses present-perfect
grammar tenses present-perfect
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
asked 10 hours ago
user13985user13985
1033
1033
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago
add a comment |
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
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hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Both are correct, but the second sounds more natural, at least in American English.
There is a very slight difference in meaning between the two sentences. The first sentence emphasizes the speaker's pride, whereas the second sentence emphasizes the act of meeting the listeners. The second sentence therefore sounds slightly more humble.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
answered 5 hours ago
hgulerhguler
643
643
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
New contributor
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
hguler is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
add a comment |
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
Could you break down the grammar? I feel that the first one has wrong grammar.
– user13985
2 hours ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
"Having met" is the perfect participle. See: dictionary.com/e/whats-a-participle and english.stackexchange.com/questions/426492/…
– hguler
1 hour ago
add a comment |
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"I have proud of having met both of you" would not work --> you'd need the noun form of proud, which is pride. Still, it would sound awkward.
– psosuna
10 hours ago
@psosuna That is what I am thinking, too. But I want to use grammar to formally explain why it is right or wrong?
– user13985
1 hour ago