Would the UK have to pay anything to the EU in case of a no-deal Brexit?












9















The EU was very insistent on the UK paying back its obligations to the EU after leaving the Union, as a condition for negotiating a favorable trade deal. But would the UK have to pay back anything if it leaves the EU without a deal of any kind on March 29th?










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

    – JJJ
    2 days ago











  • @JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago






  • 2





    @Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

    – Tim B
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago











  • I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

    – Michael Kay
    2 days ago
















9















The EU was very insistent on the UK paying back its obligations to the EU after leaving the Union, as a condition for negotiating a favorable trade deal. But would the UK have to pay back anything if it leaves the EU without a deal of any kind on March 29th?










share|improve this question




















  • 1





    When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

    – JJJ
    2 days ago











  • @JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago






  • 2





    @Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

    – Tim B
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago











  • I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

    – Michael Kay
    2 days ago














9












9








9


1






The EU was very insistent on the UK paying back its obligations to the EU after leaving the Union, as a condition for negotiating a favorable trade deal. But would the UK have to pay back anything if it leaves the EU without a deal of any kind on March 29th?










share|improve this question
















The EU was very insistent on the UK paying back its obligations to the EU after leaving the Union, as a condition for negotiating a favorable trade deal. But would the UK have to pay back anything if it leaves the EU without a deal of any kind on March 29th?







united-kingdom european-union brexit






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited 2 days ago









JJJ

4,05721939




4,05721939










asked Jan 19 at 0:06









JonathanReezJonathanReez

13.3k1375150




13.3k1375150








  • 1





    When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

    – JJJ
    2 days ago











  • @JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago






  • 2





    @Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

    – Tim B
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago











  • I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

    – Michael Kay
    2 days ago














  • 1





    When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

    – JJJ
    2 days ago











  • @JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago






  • 2





    @Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

    – Tim B
    2 days ago






  • 1





    @TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

    – Valorum
    2 days ago











  • I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

    – Michael Kay
    2 days ago








1




1





When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

– JJJ
2 days ago





When you say 'paying back', do you mean continue to make payments on projects it had previously committed to?

– JJJ
2 days ago













@JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

– Valorum
2 days ago





@JJJ - OP almost certainly means the £39Bn "Divorce bill" rather than any ongoing payments.

– Valorum
2 days ago




2




2





@Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

– Tim B
2 days ago





@Valorum The "divorce bill" is mostly to settle ongoing payments on projects we (as part of the EU) already committed too though.

– Tim B
2 days ago




1




1





@TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

– Valorum
2 days ago





@TimB - Indeed. And the principle behind the calculation was that this would essentially be a final settlement of outstanding commitments made. Any unforeseen expenses that were incurred (for example, if one of the projects overran in costs) would be covered by the EU.

– Valorum
2 days ago













I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

– Michael Kay
2 days ago





I don't think you mean "paying back" in the sense of returning money received from the EU. I think you mean paying monies that would have been payable to the EU if Britain were still a member. And by "have to pay" I think you need to distinguish legal obligations from practical necessity resulting from the desire to maintain working relationships, creditworthiness, etc.

– Michael Kay
2 days ago










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















10














The short answer is that people don't all agree whether the UK has any legal commitments to the EU until a withdrawal agreement is ratified, but the House of Lords (and possibly the UK government) have been advised not.



In a House of Lords report dated 4th March 2017 the position was developed which was summarised in the following paragraphs:




The budget is going to be a contentious early issue during the UK’s negotiations over leaving the EU. It is crucial for both parties. The UK provides approximately 12% of the resources available to the EU budget, and is also a significant net contributor. The removal of the UK’s payments into the budget will require the other EU Member States to agree either to pay more into the budget, or draw less from it. Neither option is without difficulty, and those difficulties may colour the wider Brexit negotiations. The Government will have to consider its stance on continued budgetary contributions in the light of its impact on the wider negotiations, and the economic and political implications will need to be set against one another. The Government has stated that it is open to making payments towards specific programmes in order to cement a cooperative future relationship with the EU but there are already demands from the EU, for much wider contributions.



However, the strictly legal position of the UK on this issue appears to be strong. Article 50 provides for a ‘guillotine’ after two years if a withdrawal agreement is not reached unless all Member States, including the UK, agree to extend negotiations. Although there are competing interpretations, we conclude that if agreement is not reached, all EU law—including provisions concerning ongoing financial contributions and machinery for adjudication—will cease to apply, and the UK would be subject to no enforceable obligation to make any financial contribution at all. This would be undesirable for the remaining Member States, who would have to decide how to plug the hole in the budget created by the UK’s exit without any kind of transition. It would also damage the prospects of reaching friendly agreement on other issues. Nonetheless, the ultimate possibility of the UK walking away from negotiations without incurring financial commitments provides an important context.




The primary alternative interpretation holds that exercise of Article 50 doesn't rule out Article 70 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which reads:




Unless the treaty otherwise provides or the parties otherwise agree, the termination of a treaty under its provisions or in accordance with the present Convention:




  • releases the parties from any obligation further to perform the treaty;


  • does not affect any right, obligation or legal situation of the parties created through the execution of the treaty prior to its termination.





This all gets a little bit more complicated, since the dispute may or may not need to be settled by the European Court of Justice, which may or may not have the jurisdiction to make a decision after a no deal Brexit.






share|improve this answer

































    14














    'Have to' is ill-defined. Just like a regular person, it could decide not to pay. The question is what the consequences of not paying are.



    Rather than look at what the EU could do in retaliation, it's interesting to look at the UK itself. The UK has said that it wants to negotiate trade deals with other countries. Since those deals are not yet negotiated, those other countries will look at how the UK deals with it current trading partner. In particular, not making payments you have previously committed to will make one look untrustworthy (just like a regular person not paying their bills).



    Given that the UK wants to make these trade deals, they do have a strong incentive to make these payments or at least settle the issue with the EU on good terms.



    So do they have to pay? Possibly not. Is it in their interest to pay? Yes. Would it hurt their negotiating position with third countries if they left without paying and the EU publicly challenged them? Definitely.






    share|improve this answer
























    • I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

      – Ross Ridge
      2 days ago



















    9














    Yes, but it's wrong to see it as "pay back". It's not about money given to the UK by the EU which the EU now wants back.



    It's about commitments for future payments which were made by all EU countries, including the UK. A noteworthy example is pensions for EU staff. EU staff has rights to those pensions (just like anyone else); not now, but sometime in the future.



    Now, I don't know what recourse the EU has if the UK doesn't fulfill its obligations, but the obligations are still there.






    share|improve this answer



















    • 4





      EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

      – Valorum
      2 days ago








    • 4





      @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

      – JJJ
      2 days ago











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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    10














    The short answer is that people don't all agree whether the UK has any legal commitments to the EU until a withdrawal agreement is ratified, but the House of Lords (and possibly the UK government) have been advised not.



    In a House of Lords report dated 4th March 2017 the position was developed which was summarised in the following paragraphs:




    The budget is going to be a contentious early issue during the UK’s negotiations over leaving the EU. It is crucial for both parties. The UK provides approximately 12% of the resources available to the EU budget, and is also a significant net contributor. The removal of the UK’s payments into the budget will require the other EU Member States to agree either to pay more into the budget, or draw less from it. Neither option is without difficulty, and those difficulties may colour the wider Brexit negotiations. The Government will have to consider its stance on continued budgetary contributions in the light of its impact on the wider negotiations, and the economic and political implications will need to be set against one another. The Government has stated that it is open to making payments towards specific programmes in order to cement a cooperative future relationship with the EU but there are already demands from the EU, for much wider contributions.



    However, the strictly legal position of the UK on this issue appears to be strong. Article 50 provides for a ‘guillotine’ after two years if a withdrawal agreement is not reached unless all Member States, including the UK, agree to extend negotiations. Although there are competing interpretations, we conclude that if agreement is not reached, all EU law—including provisions concerning ongoing financial contributions and machinery for adjudication—will cease to apply, and the UK would be subject to no enforceable obligation to make any financial contribution at all. This would be undesirable for the remaining Member States, who would have to decide how to plug the hole in the budget created by the UK’s exit without any kind of transition. It would also damage the prospects of reaching friendly agreement on other issues. Nonetheless, the ultimate possibility of the UK walking away from negotiations without incurring financial commitments provides an important context.




    The primary alternative interpretation holds that exercise of Article 50 doesn't rule out Article 70 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which reads:




    Unless the treaty otherwise provides or the parties otherwise agree, the termination of a treaty under its provisions or in accordance with the present Convention:




    • releases the parties from any obligation further to perform the treaty;


    • does not affect any right, obligation or legal situation of the parties created through the execution of the treaty prior to its termination.





    This all gets a little bit more complicated, since the dispute may or may not need to be settled by the European Court of Justice, which may or may not have the jurisdiction to make a decision after a no deal Brexit.






    share|improve this answer






























      10














      The short answer is that people don't all agree whether the UK has any legal commitments to the EU until a withdrawal agreement is ratified, but the House of Lords (and possibly the UK government) have been advised not.



      In a House of Lords report dated 4th March 2017 the position was developed which was summarised in the following paragraphs:




      The budget is going to be a contentious early issue during the UK’s negotiations over leaving the EU. It is crucial for both parties. The UK provides approximately 12% of the resources available to the EU budget, and is also a significant net contributor. The removal of the UK’s payments into the budget will require the other EU Member States to agree either to pay more into the budget, or draw less from it. Neither option is without difficulty, and those difficulties may colour the wider Brexit negotiations. The Government will have to consider its stance on continued budgetary contributions in the light of its impact on the wider negotiations, and the economic and political implications will need to be set against one another. The Government has stated that it is open to making payments towards specific programmes in order to cement a cooperative future relationship with the EU but there are already demands from the EU, for much wider contributions.



      However, the strictly legal position of the UK on this issue appears to be strong. Article 50 provides for a ‘guillotine’ after two years if a withdrawal agreement is not reached unless all Member States, including the UK, agree to extend negotiations. Although there are competing interpretations, we conclude that if agreement is not reached, all EU law—including provisions concerning ongoing financial contributions and machinery for adjudication—will cease to apply, and the UK would be subject to no enforceable obligation to make any financial contribution at all. This would be undesirable for the remaining Member States, who would have to decide how to plug the hole in the budget created by the UK’s exit without any kind of transition. It would also damage the prospects of reaching friendly agreement on other issues. Nonetheless, the ultimate possibility of the UK walking away from negotiations without incurring financial commitments provides an important context.




      The primary alternative interpretation holds that exercise of Article 50 doesn't rule out Article 70 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which reads:




      Unless the treaty otherwise provides or the parties otherwise agree, the termination of a treaty under its provisions or in accordance with the present Convention:




      • releases the parties from any obligation further to perform the treaty;


      • does not affect any right, obligation or legal situation of the parties created through the execution of the treaty prior to its termination.





      This all gets a little bit more complicated, since the dispute may or may not need to be settled by the European Court of Justice, which may or may not have the jurisdiction to make a decision after a no deal Brexit.






      share|improve this answer




























        10












        10








        10







        The short answer is that people don't all agree whether the UK has any legal commitments to the EU until a withdrawal agreement is ratified, but the House of Lords (and possibly the UK government) have been advised not.



        In a House of Lords report dated 4th March 2017 the position was developed which was summarised in the following paragraphs:




        The budget is going to be a contentious early issue during the UK’s negotiations over leaving the EU. It is crucial for both parties. The UK provides approximately 12% of the resources available to the EU budget, and is also a significant net contributor. The removal of the UK’s payments into the budget will require the other EU Member States to agree either to pay more into the budget, or draw less from it. Neither option is without difficulty, and those difficulties may colour the wider Brexit negotiations. The Government will have to consider its stance on continued budgetary contributions in the light of its impact on the wider negotiations, and the economic and political implications will need to be set against one another. The Government has stated that it is open to making payments towards specific programmes in order to cement a cooperative future relationship with the EU but there are already demands from the EU, for much wider contributions.



        However, the strictly legal position of the UK on this issue appears to be strong. Article 50 provides for a ‘guillotine’ after two years if a withdrawal agreement is not reached unless all Member States, including the UK, agree to extend negotiations. Although there are competing interpretations, we conclude that if agreement is not reached, all EU law—including provisions concerning ongoing financial contributions and machinery for adjudication—will cease to apply, and the UK would be subject to no enforceable obligation to make any financial contribution at all. This would be undesirable for the remaining Member States, who would have to decide how to plug the hole in the budget created by the UK’s exit without any kind of transition. It would also damage the prospects of reaching friendly agreement on other issues. Nonetheless, the ultimate possibility of the UK walking away from negotiations without incurring financial commitments provides an important context.




        The primary alternative interpretation holds that exercise of Article 50 doesn't rule out Article 70 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which reads:




        Unless the treaty otherwise provides or the parties otherwise agree, the termination of a treaty under its provisions or in accordance with the present Convention:




        • releases the parties from any obligation further to perform the treaty;


        • does not affect any right, obligation or legal situation of the parties created through the execution of the treaty prior to its termination.





        This all gets a little bit more complicated, since the dispute may or may not need to be settled by the European Court of Justice, which may or may not have the jurisdiction to make a decision after a no deal Brexit.






        share|improve this answer















        The short answer is that people don't all agree whether the UK has any legal commitments to the EU until a withdrawal agreement is ratified, but the House of Lords (and possibly the UK government) have been advised not.



        In a House of Lords report dated 4th March 2017 the position was developed which was summarised in the following paragraphs:




        The budget is going to be a contentious early issue during the UK’s negotiations over leaving the EU. It is crucial for both parties. The UK provides approximately 12% of the resources available to the EU budget, and is also a significant net contributor. The removal of the UK’s payments into the budget will require the other EU Member States to agree either to pay more into the budget, or draw less from it. Neither option is without difficulty, and those difficulties may colour the wider Brexit negotiations. The Government will have to consider its stance on continued budgetary contributions in the light of its impact on the wider negotiations, and the economic and political implications will need to be set against one another. The Government has stated that it is open to making payments towards specific programmes in order to cement a cooperative future relationship with the EU but there are already demands from the EU, for much wider contributions.



        However, the strictly legal position of the UK on this issue appears to be strong. Article 50 provides for a ‘guillotine’ after two years if a withdrawal agreement is not reached unless all Member States, including the UK, agree to extend negotiations. Although there are competing interpretations, we conclude that if agreement is not reached, all EU law—including provisions concerning ongoing financial contributions and machinery for adjudication—will cease to apply, and the UK would be subject to no enforceable obligation to make any financial contribution at all. This would be undesirable for the remaining Member States, who would have to decide how to plug the hole in the budget created by the UK’s exit without any kind of transition. It would also damage the prospects of reaching friendly agreement on other issues. Nonetheless, the ultimate possibility of the UK walking away from negotiations without incurring financial commitments provides an important context.




        The primary alternative interpretation holds that exercise of Article 50 doesn't rule out Article 70 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, which reads:




        Unless the treaty otherwise provides or the parties otherwise agree, the termination of a treaty under its provisions or in accordance with the present Convention:




        • releases the parties from any obligation further to perform the treaty;


        • does not affect any right, obligation or legal situation of the parties created through the execution of the treaty prior to its termination.





        This all gets a little bit more complicated, since the dispute may or may not need to be settled by the European Court of Justice, which may or may not have the jurisdiction to make a decision after a no deal Brexit.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 2 days ago

























        answered 2 days ago









        origimboorigimbo

        10.8k22441




        10.8k22441























            14














            'Have to' is ill-defined. Just like a regular person, it could decide not to pay. The question is what the consequences of not paying are.



            Rather than look at what the EU could do in retaliation, it's interesting to look at the UK itself. The UK has said that it wants to negotiate trade deals with other countries. Since those deals are not yet negotiated, those other countries will look at how the UK deals with it current trading partner. In particular, not making payments you have previously committed to will make one look untrustworthy (just like a regular person not paying their bills).



            Given that the UK wants to make these trade deals, they do have a strong incentive to make these payments or at least settle the issue with the EU on good terms.



            So do they have to pay? Possibly not. Is it in their interest to pay? Yes. Would it hurt their negotiating position with third countries if they left without paying and the EU publicly challenged them? Definitely.






            share|improve this answer
























            • I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

              – Ross Ridge
              2 days ago
















            14














            'Have to' is ill-defined. Just like a regular person, it could decide not to pay. The question is what the consequences of not paying are.



            Rather than look at what the EU could do in retaliation, it's interesting to look at the UK itself. The UK has said that it wants to negotiate trade deals with other countries. Since those deals are not yet negotiated, those other countries will look at how the UK deals with it current trading partner. In particular, not making payments you have previously committed to will make one look untrustworthy (just like a regular person not paying their bills).



            Given that the UK wants to make these trade deals, they do have a strong incentive to make these payments or at least settle the issue with the EU on good terms.



            So do they have to pay? Possibly not. Is it in their interest to pay? Yes. Would it hurt their negotiating position with third countries if they left without paying and the EU publicly challenged them? Definitely.






            share|improve this answer
























            • I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

              – Ross Ridge
              2 days ago














            14












            14








            14







            'Have to' is ill-defined. Just like a regular person, it could decide not to pay. The question is what the consequences of not paying are.



            Rather than look at what the EU could do in retaliation, it's interesting to look at the UK itself. The UK has said that it wants to negotiate trade deals with other countries. Since those deals are not yet negotiated, those other countries will look at how the UK deals with it current trading partner. In particular, not making payments you have previously committed to will make one look untrustworthy (just like a regular person not paying their bills).



            Given that the UK wants to make these trade deals, they do have a strong incentive to make these payments or at least settle the issue with the EU on good terms.



            So do they have to pay? Possibly not. Is it in their interest to pay? Yes. Would it hurt their negotiating position with third countries if they left without paying and the EU publicly challenged them? Definitely.






            share|improve this answer













            'Have to' is ill-defined. Just like a regular person, it could decide not to pay. The question is what the consequences of not paying are.



            Rather than look at what the EU could do in retaliation, it's interesting to look at the UK itself. The UK has said that it wants to negotiate trade deals with other countries. Since those deals are not yet negotiated, those other countries will look at how the UK deals with it current trading partner. In particular, not making payments you have previously committed to will make one look untrustworthy (just like a regular person not paying their bills).



            Given that the UK wants to make these trade deals, they do have a strong incentive to make these payments or at least settle the issue with the EU on good terms.



            So do they have to pay? Possibly not. Is it in their interest to pay? Yes. Would it hurt their negotiating position with third countries if they left without paying and the EU publicly challenged them? Definitely.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 2 days ago









            JJJJJJ

            4,05721939




            4,05721939













            • I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

              – Ross Ridge
              2 days ago



















            • I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

              – Ross Ridge
              2 days ago

















            I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

            – Ross Ridge
            2 days ago





            I think the question is whether the UK has an obligation to pay, not whether it would be forced to. It's not at all clear, as shown by origimbo's answer, that third countries would see the UK reneging on their obligations if they refused to pay whatever "divorce bill' the EU might insist on.

            – Ross Ridge
            2 days ago











            9














            Yes, but it's wrong to see it as "pay back". It's not about money given to the UK by the EU which the EU now wants back.



            It's about commitments for future payments which were made by all EU countries, including the UK. A noteworthy example is pensions for EU staff. EU staff has rights to those pensions (just like anyone else); not now, but sometime in the future.



            Now, I don't know what recourse the EU has if the UK doesn't fulfill its obligations, but the obligations are still there.






            share|improve this answer



















            • 4





              EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

              – Valorum
              2 days ago








            • 4





              @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

              – JJJ
              2 days ago
















            9














            Yes, but it's wrong to see it as "pay back". It's not about money given to the UK by the EU which the EU now wants back.



            It's about commitments for future payments which were made by all EU countries, including the UK. A noteworthy example is pensions for EU staff. EU staff has rights to those pensions (just like anyone else); not now, but sometime in the future.



            Now, I don't know what recourse the EU has if the UK doesn't fulfill its obligations, but the obligations are still there.






            share|improve this answer



















            • 4





              EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

              – Valorum
              2 days ago








            • 4





              @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

              – JJJ
              2 days ago














            9












            9








            9







            Yes, but it's wrong to see it as "pay back". It's not about money given to the UK by the EU which the EU now wants back.



            It's about commitments for future payments which were made by all EU countries, including the UK. A noteworthy example is pensions for EU staff. EU staff has rights to those pensions (just like anyone else); not now, but sometime in the future.



            Now, I don't know what recourse the EU has if the UK doesn't fulfill its obligations, but the obligations are still there.






            share|improve this answer













            Yes, but it's wrong to see it as "pay back". It's not about money given to the UK by the EU which the EU now wants back.



            It's about commitments for future payments which were made by all EU countries, including the UK. A noteworthy example is pensions for EU staff. EU staff has rights to those pensions (just like anyone else); not now, but sometime in the future.



            Now, I don't know what recourse the EU has if the UK doesn't fulfill its obligations, but the obligations are still there.







            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered Jan 19 at 1:39









            AbigailAbigail

            46217




            46217








            • 4





              EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

              – Valorum
              2 days ago








            • 4





              @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

              – JJJ
              2 days ago














            • 4





              EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

              – Valorum
              2 days ago








            • 4





              @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

              – JJJ
              2 days ago








            4




            4





            EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

            – Valorum
            2 days ago







            EU Staff have a right to receive those pensions... from the EU. The question is whether the EU has an enforceable right to demand/request payment from the UK to cover those commitments. Assuming they don't, the EU will just have to get the money from elsewhere in their budget

            – Valorum
            2 days ago






            4




            4





            @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

            – JJJ
            2 days ago





            @Valorum as we read in this question and its answers, having some right does not always mean getting what you owe. In particular, the issue of pensions has already been raised and the UK and EU disagree (at least in 2016) on the matter.

            – JJJ
            2 days ago


















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