Them or their after despite?












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What's the correct usage: embattled customers whose flats are in limbo despite them or their having made the payment? What's the logic?






prepositions pronouns grammatical-case







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    Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago
















0















What's the correct usage: embattled customers whose flats are in limbo despite them or their having made the payment? What's the logic?






prepositions pronouns grammatical-case







share|improve this question


















  • 1





    Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago














0












0








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What's the correct usage: embattled customers whose flats are in limbo despite them or their having made the payment? What's the logic?






prepositions pronouns grammatical-case







share|improve this question














What's the correct usage: embattled customers whose flats are in limbo despite them or their having made the payment? What's the logic?






prepositions pronouns grammatical-case




prepositions pronouns grammatical-case






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asked 9 hours ago









huppugugahuppuguga

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291








  • 1





    Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago














  • 1





    Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

    – sumelic
    6 hours ago








1




1





Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

– sumelic
6 hours ago





Possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive adjective/determiner?

– sumelic
6 hours ago










1 Answer
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They can both be used to mean the same thing, especially in British English. This has been the case for over 300 years. Some may say that the possessive (e.g. 'their') form is considered more formal, and some linguists say it is being used less than formerly.



Possessive with gerund






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    They can both be used to mean the same thing, especially in British English. This has been the case for over 300 years. Some may say that the possessive (e.g. 'their') form is considered more formal, and some linguists say it is being used less than formerly.



    Possessive with gerund






    share|improve this answer




























      1














      They can both be used to mean the same thing, especially in British English. This has been the case for over 300 years. Some may say that the possessive (e.g. 'their') form is considered more formal, and some linguists say it is being used less than formerly.



      Possessive with gerund






      share|improve this answer


























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        1







        They can both be used to mean the same thing, especially in British English. This has been the case for over 300 years. Some may say that the possessive (e.g. 'their') form is considered more formal, and some linguists say it is being used less than formerly.



        Possessive with gerund






        share|improve this answer













        They can both be used to mean the same thing, especially in British English. This has been the case for over 300 years. Some may say that the possessive (e.g. 'their') form is considered more formal, and some linguists say it is being used less than formerly.



        Possessive with gerund







        share|improve this answer












        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer










        answered 8 hours ago









        Michael HarveyMichael Harvey

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