Can we say or write : “No, it'sn't”?
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}
I know we can answer either :
- No, it's not
- No, it isn't
But is it accepted and understandable to write :
No, it'sn't
What about saying it ?
contractions answers
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
|
show 3 more comments
I know we can answer either :
- No, it's not
- No, it isn't
But is it accepted and understandable to write :
No, it'sn't
What about saying it ?
contractions answers
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
3
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
4
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
1
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10
|
show 3 more comments
I know we can answer either :
- No, it's not
- No, it isn't
But is it accepted and understandable to write :
No, it'sn't
What about saying it ?
contractions answers
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
I know we can answer either :
- No, it's not
- No, it isn't
But is it accepted and understandable to write :
No, it'sn't
What about saying it ?
contractions answers
contractions answers
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
edited Mar 29 at 16:17
Jasper
20k44174
20k44174
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
asked Mar 29 at 11:15
J.KhamphousoneJ.Khamphousone
15615
15615
Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
3
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
4
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
1
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10
|
show 3 more comments
Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
3
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
4
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
1
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10
Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
3
3
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
4
4
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
1
1
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10
|
show 3 more comments
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be
'tisn't
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
t'isn'tis not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
|
show 3 more comments
You are asking if it is acceptable to write:
No, it'sn't
The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.
A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".
Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
|
show 12 more comments
It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
add a comment |
'tain't okay.
"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
add a comment |
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4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
4 Answers
4
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be
'tisn't
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
t'isn'tis not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
|
show 3 more comments
An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be
'tisn't
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
t'isn'tis not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
|
show 3 more comments
An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be
'tisn't
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
An acceptable, if somewhat archaic, contraction would be
'tisn't
https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%27tisn%27t
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
answered Mar 29 at 13:22
GranBurguesaGranBurguesa
52133
52133
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
t'isn'tis not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
|
show 3 more comments
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
t'isn'tis not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.
– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
This is a word that I use! I'm really curious now why it is acceptable to me and it'sn't it'sn't. (Though, of course, 'tisn't is only acceptable to me at the beginning of a clause)
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 15:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
According to @Spitemaster, your answer "tisn't" can't be placed after "No", right? Like in my post, "No, 'tisn't"?
– J.Khamphousone
Mar 29 at 16:42
3
3
t'isn't is not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
t'isn't is not archaic in everyday speech in parts of the West of England.– Michael Harvey
Mar 29 at 18:15
1
1
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
@J.Khamphousone In that case, "'tisn't" is at the start of a clause (unless I'm doing my grammar wrong). In any case, it seems alright to me.
– Spitemaster
Mar 29 at 19:20
1
1
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
Just guessing, but I think the reason "'tisn't" (and "it's not", and "it isn't") are all widely accepted, but "it'sn't" isn't (though not unheard of), is because the last puts the stress on "it", and not than on "is" or "not". And that'sn't a stress pattern most English speakers use.
– Tim Pederick
Mar 31 at 1:43
|
show 3 more comments
You are asking if it is acceptable to write:
No, it'sn't
The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.
A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".
Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
|
show 12 more comments
You are asking if it is acceptable to write:
No, it'sn't
The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.
A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".
Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
|
show 12 more comments
You are asking if it is acceptable to write:
No, it'sn't
The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.
A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".
Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
You are asking if it is acceptable to write:
No, it'sn't
The answer is: no, it is not acceptable.
A contraction is normally (and traditionally) of two words, not three. So when you intend to say "it is not" you can either contract "it is" to "it's", or "is not" to "isn't".
Exceptions to this would fall under the description of nonstandard, colloquial or dialectal contractions - where regional dialects slur words together so they sound like a contraction, but strictly speaking they should not be written as such. True, some writers of literature use artistic licence and make their own written representations of such dialects. Generally, though, these would be pronounceable phonetically. I suggest that your example of "it'sn't" is neither acceptable according to the rules of grammar, nor is it a representation of any dialect. It looks like it would be pronounced as "itsent", and that is not anything I have ever heard as a well-travelled native British English speaker.
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
edited Mar 29 at 15:48
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
AstralbeeAstralbee
14.8k1554
14.8k1554
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
|
show 12 more comments
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
17
17
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
If you'd've posed this answer before I read this question, I'd've agreed.
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:52
5
5
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
Acceptability depends in the main on the context, register, and situation. The word in question is definitely pronounceable. en.wiktionary.org/wiki/it%27sn%27t
– userr2684291
Mar 29 at 12:42
12
12
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
I disagree with "A contraction is of two words, not three". In some works you see words like "couldn't've". Perhaps it's not the primary spelling but it does seem to be an acceptable alternative to many writers.
– Muzer
Mar 29 at 14:09
6
6
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
I think you're on shaky ground when you say that three-word contractions don't exist. I wouldn't've said that. (That's another example, along with the previous comment.) In this case, the specific example wouldn't be used. I also think that while pronunciation plays part of the role, the bigger issue is simply that it isn't done with this particular set of words.
– Jason Bassford
Mar 29 at 14:09
3
3
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
"O'clock" is a contraction for "o[f the ]clock", and is hardly non-standard. It does, however, have a single apostrophe, which seems to be the critical criterion for a contraction to be "standard".
– Monty Harder
Mar 29 at 17:54
|
show 12 more comments
It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
add a comment |
It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
add a comment |
It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
It is neither accepted nor understandable to say or write that. Say it isn't (2 words). Or you could say "it's not".
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
answered Mar 29 at 11:19
Michael HarveyMichael Harvey
19k12442
19k12442
add a comment |
add a comment |
'tain't okay.
"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
add a comment |
'tain't okay.
"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
add a comment |
'tain't okay.
"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
'tain't okay.
"It is not" can be contracted into a single contraction. This contraction is different from the one proposed by the original poster. According to Merriam-Webster, "'tain't" is at least 245 years old. Because it includes "ain't", it is not Standard English.
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
answered Mar 29 at 22:48
JasperJasper
20k44174
20k44174
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
add a comment |
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
"'tain't" is probably more acceptable in American English than British English.
– Martin Bonner
Mar 31 at 17:44
1
1
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
@MartinBonner : That's 'coz AmE is tainted.
– Magoo
Mar 31 at 18:04
add a comment |
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Related: english.stackexchange.com/q/15001/216106
– Davo
Mar 29 at 11:43
3
Nobody says it, because it's unpronounceable. I don't think you need any more "logic" than that fact!
– alephzero
Mar 29 at 18:15
It is incorrect in writing and it is incorrect in speech.
– chasly from UK
Mar 29 at 22:39
4
If you are Charles Lutwidge Dodgson (aka Lewis Carroll) you may write this. If you aren't, you mayn't.
– A. I. Breveleri
Mar 30 at 19:05
1
@alephzero: Do you find it harder to pronounce than isn't or hadn't?
– ruakh
Mar 31 at 5:10