Does irregularity indicate something about antiquity?
In answer to a question on the Latin site, Are magister and majesty etymologocially related, one answer stated :
Of course, magis and maior are not regularly formed, and hence we need to look further back to trace their common ancestry
Is it the case (in English) that any irregular verb or noun is necessarily one that has a long ancestry and therefore has an etymology that needs to be traced further back than itself if one is seeking the real root of its meaning and usage ?
etymology irregular irregular-verbs
add a comment |
In answer to a question on the Latin site, Are magister and majesty etymologocially related, one answer stated :
Of course, magis and maior are not regularly formed, and hence we need to look further back to trace their common ancestry
Is it the case (in English) that any irregular verb or noun is necessarily one that has a long ancestry and therefore has an etymology that needs to be traced further back than itself if one is seeking the real root of its meaning and usage ?
etymology irregular irregular-verbs
2
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
2
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
add a comment |
In answer to a question on the Latin site, Are magister and majesty etymologocially related, one answer stated :
Of course, magis and maior are not regularly formed, and hence we need to look further back to trace their common ancestry
Is it the case (in English) that any irregular verb or noun is necessarily one that has a long ancestry and therefore has an etymology that needs to be traced further back than itself if one is seeking the real root of its meaning and usage ?
etymology irregular irregular-verbs
In answer to a question on the Latin site, Are magister and majesty etymologocially related, one answer stated :
Of course, magis and maior are not regularly formed, and hence we need to look further back to trace their common ancestry
Is it the case (in English) that any irregular verb or noun is necessarily one that has a long ancestry and therefore has an etymology that needs to be traced further back than itself if one is seeking the real root of its meaning and usage ?
etymology irregular irregular-verbs
etymology irregular irregular-verbs
edited 7 hours ago
Nigel J
asked 8 hours ago
Nigel JNigel J
17.2k94584
17.2k94584
2
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
2
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
add a comment |
2
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
2
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
2
2
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
2
2
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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2
Interesting, but probably “too broad”.
– user240918
7 hours ago
2
Not necessarily, no. The past tense form dove (to dive) is quite recent, formed analogically to verbs like drive/drove, so that doesn’t need to be traced back very far. But in general, yes. Regular patterns change over time, and when they do, anything that doesn’t change along with them ends up being irregular – today’s regular is tomorrow’s irregular. So most commonly, if you have an irregular form, etymology has to explain not just the root of a word, but several individual forms. (Did you mean “long ancestry” instead of “short ancestry”?)
– Janus Bahs Jacquet
7 hours ago
@user240918 Yes, you are probably right. I didn't think to confine it to an example. Point taken.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago
@JanusBahsJacquet Yes. I got muddled, there. Edited to correct. Thanks.
– Nigel J
7 hours ago