Transcription and pronunciation of the 'un-' prefix in General American English





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What's the correct transcription and pronunciation of the 'un-' prefix in General American English?
Cambridge Online dictionary provides the following transcription: /ʌn/



It's the same in words with this prefix: /ʌnˈdu/.
Why do they use the /ʌ/ and not the /ə/ (schwa)? It's the /ə/ sound that typically occurs in unstressed syllables.
Thank you.










share|improve this question


















  • 3





    Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

    – GEdgar
    Apr 2 at 13:25






  • 1





    The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 13:46








  • 1





    Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 14:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 16:35













  • Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 18:44




















1















What's the correct transcription and pronunciation of the 'un-' prefix in General American English?
Cambridge Online dictionary provides the following transcription: /ʌn/



It's the same in words with this prefix: /ʌnˈdu/.
Why do they use the /ʌ/ and not the /ə/ (schwa)? It's the /ə/ sound that typically occurs in unstressed syllables.
Thank you.










share|improve this question


















  • 3





    Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

    – GEdgar
    Apr 2 at 13:25






  • 1





    The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 13:46








  • 1





    Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 14:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 16:35













  • Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 18:44
















1












1








1


1






What's the correct transcription and pronunciation of the 'un-' prefix in General American English?
Cambridge Online dictionary provides the following transcription: /ʌn/



It's the same in words with this prefix: /ʌnˈdu/.
Why do they use the /ʌ/ and not the /ə/ (schwa)? It's the /ə/ sound that typically occurs in unstressed syllables.
Thank you.










share|improve this question














What's the correct transcription and pronunciation of the 'un-' prefix in General American English?
Cambridge Online dictionary provides the following transcription: /ʌn/



It's the same in words with this prefix: /ʌnˈdu/.
Why do they use the /ʌ/ and not the /ə/ (schwa)? It's the /ə/ sound that typically occurs in unstressed syllables.
Thank you.







pronunciation prefixes ipa negative-prefixes






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  • 3





    Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

    – GEdgar
    Apr 2 at 13:25






  • 1





    The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 13:46








  • 1





    Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 14:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 16:35













  • Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 18:44
















  • 3





    Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

    – GEdgar
    Apr 2 at 13:25






  • 1





    The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 13:46








  • 1





    Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 14:48






  • 1





    @JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

    – Peter Shor
    Apr 2 at 16:35













  • Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

    – John Lawler
    Apr 2 at 18:44










3




3





Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

– GEdgar
Apr 2 at 13:25





Your example undue has stress on both syllables, it seems to me. (Perhaps a secondary stress in the first syllable, but not unstressed.) Indeed, that often occurs... unwashed, unknown, unclean. This may explain Cambridge Online Dictionary.

– GEdgar
Apr 2 at 13:25




1




1





The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

– Peter Shor
Apr 2 at 13:46







The prefix un- usually has secondary stress, so it's not reduced to a schwa: unable is not an exact homophone of enable. (Although since the majority of Americans pronounce schwa and /ʌ/ with the same vowel, the distinction will often be quite subtle. Many, if not all, of the rest of us, me included, use /ʌ/ and not /ə/ in un-.)

– Peter Shor
Apr 2 at 13:46






1




1





Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

– John Lawler
Apr 2 at 14:48





Phonemically, there's no difference between /ə/ and /ʌ/. They both name the same phoneme, at least in American English. [ʌ] -- the phone, not the phoneme -- is the allophone that occurs with primary stress, while [ə], shading off to [ɨ] or syllabic resonants, occurs most often as the allophone without primary stress. On the basic principle that the most common allophone should be the name of the phoneme, I use /ə/ instead of /ʌ/. Also, people vary considerably in their individual pronunciation of reduced vowels; individual variation usually swamps "official" pronunciations.

– John Lawler
Apr 2 at 14:48




1




1





@JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

– Peter Shor
Apr 2 at 16:35







@JohnLawler: so do you pronounce unable and enable in exactly the same way? For me, that's a minimal pair between /ʌ/ and /ə/.

– Peter Shor
Apr 2 at 16:35















Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

– John Lawler
Apr 2 at 18:44







Depends on what preceded it. If it was be or to (among the most common choices), they'd both decay to a syllabic nasal following the /y/ or /w/, and be indistinguishable outside of context.

– John Lawler
Apr 2 at 18:44












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