Tall legs VS Long legs
Which one of these sentences is correct, and why?
-I've tall legs.
-I've long legs.
meaning vocabulary
add a comment |
Which one of these sentences is correct, and why?
-I've tall legs.
-I've long legs.
meaning vocabulary
In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
Which one of these sentences is correct, and why?
-I've tall legs.
-I've long legs.
meaning vocabulary
Which one of these sentences is correct, and why?
-I've tall legs.
-I've long legs.
meaning vocabulary
meaning vocabulary
asked 9 hours ago
Ashraf BenmebarekAshraf Benmebarek
182
182
In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
Long legs is the more common usage. The phrase tall legs is used very rarely, as demonstrated by Ngrams
The word tall is reserved for measuring in the vertical direction. Even though legs are often vertical, they can certainly be horizontal as well, for example, when lying down. This same sort of argument can be made of ladders; however, the phrases long ladder and tall ladder occur with roughly the same frequency (Ngrams again). It seems that there is no definitive rule to decide between tall or long. But for legs, using long is certainly more conventional.
add a comment |
As I see it, the problem isn't with tall versus long legs, but your omission of "got" when using the contraction. The correct form, without and with the contraction, respectively would be: "I have long legs/I've got long legs"...
I'm tall and I have long legs.
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Long legs is the more common usage. The phrase tall legs is used very rarely, as demonstrated by Ngrams
The word tall is reserved for measuring in the vertical direction. Even though legs are often vertical, they can certainly be horizontal as well, for example, when lying down. This same sort of argument can be made of ladders; however, the phrases long ladder and tall ladder occur with roughly the same frequency (Ngrams again). It seems that there is no definitive rule to decide between tall or long. But for legs, using long is certainly more conventional.
add a comment |
Long legs is the more common usage. The phrase tall legs is used very rarely, as demonstrated by Ngrams
The word tall is reserved for measuring in the vertical direction. Even though legs are often vertical, they can certainly be horizontal as well, for example, when lying down. This same sort of argument can be made of ladders; however, the phrases long ladder and tall ladder occur with roughly the same frequency (Ngrams again). It seems that there is no definitive rule to decide between tall or long. But for legs, using long is certainly more conventional.
add a comment |
Long legs is the more common usage. The phrase tall legs is used very rarely, as demonstrated by Ngrams
The word tall is reserved for measuring in the vertical direction. Even though legs are often vertical, they can certainly be horizontal as well, for example, when lying down. This same sort of argument can be made of ladders; however, the phrases long ladder and tall ladder occur with roughly the same frequency (Ngrams again). It seems that there is no definitive rule to decide between tall or long. But for legs, using long is certainly more conventional.
Long legs is the more common usage. The phrase tall legs is used very rarely, as demonstrated by Ngrams
The word tall is reserved for measuring in the vertical direction. Even though legs are often vertical, they can certainly be horizontal as well, for example, when lying down. This same sort of argument can be made of ladders; however, the phrases long ladder and tall ladder occur with roughly the same frequency (Ngrams again). It seems that there is no definitive rule to decide between tall or long. But for legs, using long is certainly more conventional.
answered 9 hours ago
Benjamin KuykendallBenjamin Kuykendall
607210
607210
add a comment |
add a comment |
As I see it, the problem isn't with tall versus long legs, but your omission of "got" when using the contraction. The correct form, without and with the contraction, respectively would be: "I have long legs/I've got long legs"...
I'm tall and I have long legs.
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
As I see it, the problem isn't with tall versus long legs, but your omission of "got" when using the contraction. The correct form, without and with the contraction, respectively would be: "I have long legs/I've got long legs"...
I'm tall and I have long legs.
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
As I see it, the problem isn't with tall versus long legs, but your omission of "got" when using the contraction. The correct form, without and with the contraction, respectively would be: "I have long legs/I've got long legs"...
I'm tall and I have long legs.
As I see it, the problem isn't with tall versus long legs, but your omission of "got" when using the contraction. The correct form, without and with the contraction, respectively would be: "I have long legs/I've got long legs"...
I'm tall and I have long legs.
answered 9 hours ago
user218195user218195
45324
45324
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
I've just noticed the "and why?" part of the query. Other than the basic obvious fact that the person is tall and the legs are long, I don't really see how "why" comes into the equation.
– user218195
9 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
It sounds like a misspoken I've got long legs because that's grammatical US English, but *I've long legs is not.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago
add a comment |
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In American English, you can't contract I have to I've in the sense of 'I possess'; only when have is an auxiliary, like I've lived here all my life.
– John Lawler
4 hours ago